Sunday, 30 August 2015

One Liners

1.Lepra cells are : Histiocytes

2. The most diagnostic test for SLE

is : Antibodies against DNA
3. Rosette arrangement of cells is

seen in : Retinoblastoma
4. Heart : can not undergo

5. Hereditary factor are important in
: Retinoblastoma , breast

6. Dystrophic calcification is not
seen in : Hematoma

7. Lines of Zahn are seen in :Primary platelet thrombus

8. Transudates : has specific gravity
less than 1 .002 , results from
hydrostatic alterations arise in the
vascular endothelium

9. Amyloid ( AA) originates from:
Plasma cells

10. Fibrinoid necrosis is not seen in :

11. Prolonged P - R interval : is not
major criteria of rheumatic fever

12. The most common primary tumor
of heart is : Myxoma

13. The type of involvement of the
heart in rheumatic fever is :

14. Atrial myxoma commonly arises
from : Left atrium

15. Most common cause of aortic
aneurysm is : Atherosclerosis

16. Most common site of myocardial
infarction is : Anterior wall of left

17. Concentric myocardial
hypertrophy is seen in :
Congestive cardiomyopathy

18. Asbestos : is associated with Ca

19. Commonest type of Emphysema is
: Centriacinar

20. The commonest type of
bronchogenic Ca in non- smoker
is : Adenocarcinoma

21. Alpha - I- antitrypsin deficiency
occurs in : Emphysema

22. Gray hepatization of lungs is seen
on day: 3- 5

23. Pneumonia alba is caused by :

24. Most sensitive liver function test
to differentiate type of jaundice is
: Urine urobilinogen

25. Gamma gandy bodies are not
seen in spleen in : Thalassanemia

26. Mallory hyaline bodies are not
present in : Primary biliary

27. Papillary necrosis of kidney is
seen in : DM, Analgesic
nephropathy , Acute pyelonephritis
Micronodular cirrhosis is not seen
in : Budd Chiari syndrome

28. The carcinoma of pancreas
usually originate in the : Duct

29. Most common site of leiomyoma
is : Stomach

30. Lardaceous ' spleen is seen in :

High yield


🌱Werner-adult progeria


🌱Buerger disease-TAO

🌱Forbes is glycogen storage disorder3 i.e cori
🌱Farber -lysosomal storage disorders with ceraminidase deficiency
🌱Fabry is also a lysosomal storage disorder with alpha galactosidase deficiency
🌱Forbes albright syndrome- an endocrine disease characterized by amenorrhea, prolactinemia, and galactorrhea, caused by an adenoma of the anterior pituitary.

🌱Wartenberg syndrome? 
Compression of sensory branch of radial nerve
🌱Wardenberg syndrome?
Piebaldism, telocanthus, sensory neural deafness-Mutation in pax3
Wallenberg syndrome?
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion..

🌱Nevus of Ota: periorbitalspeckled slate gray pigmentation PERSIST 
🌱Nevus of Ito: similar pigmentation of the acromioclavicular areas: PERSIST

🌱TROUSSEAU SIGN-Hypocalcemia
🌱TROUSSEAU SYNDROME-paraneoplastic syndrome of pancreatic cancer
🌱TROISIER SIGN-enlarged hard left supraclavicular lymphnode(virchows) in gastric cancer

Thursday, 27 August 2015



Bacillary desentry
Amoebic dysentry

Meningococcal meningitis



Number of aa in insulin 51✔

A chain has 21aminoacids✔
B chain has 30aminoacids✔

No of disulphide bonds-3✔

Linkage b/w cystine-cystine✔

Exogenous insulin no c peptides✔

Endogenous insulin has both c peptides and insulin in equal ratio 1:1✔



Noble price for isolation of insulinBANTING & BEST✔

Nobel price for sequencing of insulin structureSANGER✔

Insulin gene11 chrmosome
Insulin receptor gene19✔

insulin is degrade by glutathione insulin transhydrogenase aka insulinase✔

half life of inssulin? 5 to 10mins✔

pork insulin differs from human by 1 aa..bovine insulin by 3 aminoacids✔

Tuesday, 25 August 2015

Antigenic variation

Antigenic variation
Variation of BP is High in IT persons than General
Variation -antigenic variation
B.        -Borrelia
P.        -Plasmodium
High. -Hepatitis c
I.         - Influenza
T.        -Trepanosoma brusi
General- Giardiasis

Congenital TB

Infection  with tubercle  bacilli  either during intrauterine  life  or before  complete  passage through birth canal  is termed  as  congenital  tuberculosis.   Three  possible  modes  of infection of fetus:-
1)  Hematogenous  infection  via  umbilical vein
2)  fetal  aspiration of infected  amniotic  fluid  
3)  fetal  ingestion of infected amniotic  fluid

 Most common primary site  -----  LIVER  (  primary complex in liver is suggestive   of  congenital  TB) 
Most common   site  ---  LUNG ( prognosis  is poor )

Revised  criteria for diagnosis  of congenital  tuberculosis ( by Cantwell  ) :-
 Proven tuberculosis lesions  in the  infant  plus  one  of the  following:
i.  Lesions  occurring in the  first  week of life,
ii. A  primary hepatic  complex
iii.  Maternal genital tract or  placental tuberculosis,  and
iv.  Exclusion of postnatal  transmission by thorough  investigation of contacts.

Ranson criteria

The Ranson criteria predicting the severity of acute pancreatitis. 
Parameters used:At admission
:Age in years > 55 years
White blood cell count > 16000 cells/mm3
Blood glucose > 10 mmol/L (> 200 mg/dL)
Serum AST > 250 IU/L
Serum LDH > 350 IU/LWithin 48 hours:
Serum calcium < 2.0 mmol/L (< 8.0 mg/dL)
Hematocrit fall > 10%
Oxygen (hypoxemia PO2 < 60 mmHg)
BUN increased by 1.8 or more mmol/L (5 or more mg/dL) after IV fluid hydration
Base deficit (negative base excess) > 4 mEq/L
Sequestration of fluids > 6 L
The criteria for point assignment is that a certain breakpoint be met at anytime during that 48 hour period, so that in some situations it can be calculated shortly after admission. It is applicable to non-gallstone pancreatitis.
For gallstone pancreatitis, the parameters are:
At admission:Age in years > 70 years
White blood cell count > 18000 cells/mm3
Blood glucose > 12.2 mmol/L (> 220 mg/dL)
Serum AST > 250 IU/LSerum LDH > 400 IU/LWithin 48 hours:
Calcium (serum calcium < 2.0 mmol/L (< 8.0 mg/dL)
Hematocrit fall > 10%Oxygen (hypoxemia PO2 < 60 mmHg)
BUN increased by 1.8 or more mmol/L (5 or more mg/dL)
after IV fluid hydrationBase deficit (negative base excess) > 5 mEq/L
Sequestration of fluids > 4 LThis can be remembered by the mnemonic "WALLS FOr CHUB" At admission:W = WBCA = AgeL = LDHL = Liver enzyme (AST)S = SugarAfter 48hrs:F = Fluid requirementO = pA02C = CalciumH = HaematocritU = UreaB = Base deficitThis can also be remembered by the pneumonic "GA LAW" for the on admission parameters and "C HOBBS" (as in Calvin and Hobbes) for the 48 hour parameters.
Alternatively, pancreatitis severity can be assessed by any of the following:
APACHE II score ≥ 8Organ failure
Substantial pancreatic necrosis (at least 30% glandular necrosis according to contrast-enhancedCT)
If the score ≥ 3, severe pancreatitis likely.
If the score < 3, severe pancreatitis is unlikely Or
Score 0 to 2 : 2% mortality
Score 3 to 4 : 15% mortality
Score 5 to 6 : 40% mortality
Score 7 to 8 : 100% mortality..

Saturday, 15 August 2015

Prognostic factors in neuroblastoma:

Prognostic factors in neuroblastoma:

Age – Less than 1 year have good prognosis
Stage – I and II have good prognosis
Ploidy – Triploid and hyperploid tumours have good prognosis
Cytogenetics – Chromosome 1 / Chromosome 14 deletions have worse prognosis
n-myc oncogene amplification – associated with bad prognosis
Trk A expression – high levels are associated with favourable outcome

Friday, 14 August 2015

Gauchers Disease

Gaucher's disease-
M/C lysosomal storage disease* with *beta-glucosidase deficiency.

Types-• Non-neuropathic: Type 1 (M/C)• Neuropathic: Type 2,3 (Incompatible with life)

C/F:• Hematology-
◦ Anemia◦ Thrombocytopenia
• Organomegaly• Bony lesion

Histopathology-◦ Gaucher'scell-▪ Blendnucleus▪ Wrinkledpaperlikecytoplasm ▪ PAS+ve▪ Oil-Red-Onegative

Enzyme replacement therapy available

CD Markers

All CD at one place

CD1a, S-100, CD-207(Langherin)-Langerhan cell
CD 2 3 4 5 7 8- T-cell markers,CD3 is pan T cell marker
CD10 (aka CALLA antigen) : Early pre B marker,immature
B cell marker
CD 11c, 25, 103, 123 : Hairy cell lukemia (CD 123 Most
CD 13,33,117, MPO: Myeloid series marker-AML
CD 14,64: Monocyte marker (AML-M4 M5)
CD 15 : RS cell,Neutrophils
CD 15,30 : RS Cell
CD 16,56: NK Cell
CD 19,20,21,22 : B Cell markers, CD 19 is pan B cell
CD 23+,CD 5+ : CLL/SLL
CD 23-,CD 5+ : Mantle cell lymphoma
CD 30(only) aka Ki-antigen : Anaplastic Large cell
CD 31: Endothelial cell marker (positive in angiosarcomas)
CD 34: Stem cell (also positive in angiosarcomas)
CD 41,61: Megakaryocyte,platelet marker,positive in AML-
CD 45 : On all leukocytes(except RS cell)
CD 45 RO: Memory cell
CD 45RA/RB: Naive B/T Cell
CD 55(DAF), CD 59(MIRL) : Absent in PNH
CD 68,S-100+ :Histiocyte marker(+ in malignant fibrous
CD 95/FAS ligand: apoptosis marker(extrinsic pathway)
CD 99/MIC-2 : Ewings sarcoma
CD 103: Hairy cell
CD 117 :GIST,Mastocytosis,AML (117 is present on mast
cells also)
CD 123: New antibody in Hairy cell leukemia
CD 133:Glioma
CD 207(Langherin): LCH
CD 235(Glycophorin): AML-M6

Extra ocular muscles


Medial Rectus and Lateral Rectus have only primary action.

All other muscles have a primary and two subsidiary actions.

Primary action of oblique muscles is tortion

Primary action of SR is elevation and IR is depression.

Subsidiary actions


All superiors are Intorters- SR and SO

All inferiors are Extorters-IR and IO

All Recti are Adductors

All obliques are abductors

Superior Oblique-Copying muslce

Inferior oblique-Stargazers muscle.

SO- depression

IO- Elevation

In abducted  position SR acts as pure elevator.

In adducted position SO pure depressor.

Tumour Grading

Tumor grading
1. Bloom-Richardson grading- Breast Ca.
   T- Tubular formation
   N- Nuclear pleomorphism
   M- Mitotic count
2. Nottingham prognosis index- Breast
   (0.2*Tumor size+LN+Grade)
3. Chang- Medulloastoma
4. Noguchi- Adeno Ca. of Lung
5. Masoka- Thymoma
6. Shimida index- Neuroblastoma
7. Gleason- Prostate
8. Robson- Renal Cell Ca.
9. Jackson- Penile Ca.
10. Dukes- Colorectal
11. Nevin- Ca. Gall bladder

Wednesday, 12 August 2015

Pharma questions in AIIMS

Recent AIIMS Pharma Questions:

1. ATT drug which causes hypothyroidism (AIIMS May 2014)
A. Pyrazinamide
B. Streptomycin
C. Rifampicin
D. Ethionamide

Ans is 'd' i.Ethionamide

2. Peripheral vasospasm caused by which antiparkinsonian drug? (AIIMS May 2014)
A. Bromocriptine
B. Ropinirole
C. Levodopa
D. Entecapone

Ans is 'a' i.e. Bromocriptine

3. Lithium should be stopped before how many days before surgery? (AIIMS May 2014)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Ans is 'a' i.e. 1

Lithium should be stopped 24-48 hours before surgery and delivery as it can cause polyuria.

4. Time dependent killing and postantibiotic effect seen with (AIIMS May 2014)
A. Beta lactam
B. Fluoroqinolones
C. Tetracyclines
D. Clindamycin

Ans is 'b' Fluoroqinolones

5. Mixed alpha n beta agonist? (AIIMS May 2014)
A. Epinephrine
B. Dobutamine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Dopamine

Ans is 'a' i.e. Epinephrine

6. which of the following is not used in hypertensive emergency in pregnancy (AIIMS May 2014)
A. Diazoxide 
B. Sodium nitroprusside 
C. Labetalol 
D. Hydralazine

Ans is 'a' Diazoxide

7. Methacholine act on (AIIMS May 2014)
A. m2 
B. m1 
C. m3 
D. M4

Ans is 'a' ui.e. M2

8. Drug for advanced prostate cancer (AIIMS May 2014)
A. Goserelin 
B. Letrozole
C. Finasteride
D. Flutamide

Ans is 'a' i.e. Goserelin

9. Furosemide acts on? (AIIMS May 2014)

Ans is 'b' i.e. TAL

10. All are prodrugs except- (AIIMS May 2014)
A. Lisinopril
B. Enalapril
C. Fosinopril
D. Losartan

Ans is 'a' i.e. Lisinopril

11. Which one least emetic (AIIMS May 2014)
A. Cisplatin
B. Chlorambucil
C. Daunorubicin
D. Doxorubicin

Ans is 'b' i.e. Chlorambucil

12. Methadone all except are true (AIIMS May 2014)
A. Mu receptor agonist 
B. Oral absorption is rapid and detected in blood in 1-2 hours
C. Parenteral and oral route of administration
D. Its main use is in pain

Ans is 'b' i.e. Oral absorption is rapid and detected in blood in 1-2 hours

13. Midazolam doesnt cause (AIIMS May 2014)
A. Retrograde amnesia
B. Anterograde amnesia

Ans is 'a' i.e. Retrograde amnesia

15. Not a NNRTI (AIIMS May 2014)
A. Lamivudine
B. Efavirenz
C. Etravirine
D. Delavirdine

Ans is 'a' i.e. Lamivudine

16. Father of evidence based medicine (AIIMS May 2014)

A. David Sackett
B. Ramnath Chopra
C. Gnanath Sen
D. Oswald Schmeideberg

Ans is 'a' i.e. David Sackett

17. In comparison of famotidine to cimetidine. They differ in all of the following except ? AIIMS May 2014
a. Antiandrogenic effect
b. Oral bioavailability when given along with food
c. Duration of action
d. Side effects

Ans is 'b' i.e. Oral bioavailability when given along with food

18. Alpha 2 agonist causes a/e AIIMS May 2014

A. Anxiolysis 
B. Sedation 
C. Analgesia 
D. Hyperalgesia

Ans is 'd' i.e. Hyperalgesia

19. Prophylaxis in premetrexed AIIMS May 2014
A. folic acid and b12 
B. folinic acid and b6
C. biotin and folate

Ans is 'a' i.e. Folic acid and vitamin B12

AIIMS Nov 2013

73. Severe alcoholic for 15 yrs, not taking for 2 days developed tremors,
on 1st day and tonic clonic seizures on 2nd day. Which drug should be given
to treat seizures?

A. Valproate

B. Phenytoin

*C. Diazepam*

D. Carbamazepine

74. Replacement drug for valproate in pregnancy for juvenile myoclonic
epilepsy to be given as monotherapy

A. Carbamazepine

B. Phenytoin

C. Lacosamide

*D. Levetiracetam*

75. Rho kinase inhibitor

*A. Fasudil*

B. Nicorandil

C. Ranolazine

D. Imatinib

76. Duration of action of flumazenil

*A. 40 mts*

B. 30 mts

C. 10 mts

D. 20 mts

77. SSRI which doesn’t causes discontinuation symptoms when stopped

A. Sertraline

B. Fluoxetine*

C. Escitalopram

D. Fluvoxamine

78. Drug which doesn’t cause cross BBB?

A. Hyosinebutylbromide
B. Atropine
*C. Glycopyrrolate*
D. Hyosine hydrobromide

79. Which drug acts on both α & β receptor?

A. Fenoldopam
B. Dobutamine
*C. Epinephrine*
D. Isoprenaline

80. Cholinomimetics are used in all except?

A. Glaucoma
B. Post op atony
C. Myasthenia gravies
*D. Heart block*

81. Newly FDA approved drug for lennox gestaut syndrome

A. Locasemide
*B. Rufinamide*
C. Levatiracetam
D. Vigabatrin

82. True about carbamazepine?

A. Does not aglanulocytoses
B. Serious nephrotoxicity
C. Dose monitoring not needed
*D. Stevens Johnson syndrome*

83. Drug useful in pulmonary hypertension is?

A. Methyldopa
B. Nitroprusside
*C. Bosentan*
D. Labetolol

84. Regarding unfractioned heparin & LMW heparin true is?

A. LMWH inhibits factor X a & IIa
B. Infested by macrophages
*C. Given subcutaneously*
D. LMWH inhibit only factor IIa

Compiled by Dr Ranjan Patel

Tuesday, 11 August 2015

Mission Indradhanush 2014

Mission Indradhanush 2014

25 December 2014


Indradhanush depicting seven colors of the rainbow, aims to cover all those children by 2020 who are either unvaccinated, or are partially vaccinated against 7 vaccine preventable diseases (7 VPD’s)

• Diphtheria
• Pertussis
• Tetanus
• Childhood Tuberculosis •Poliomyelitis
.Hepatitis B


Focused and systematic immunization drive: “Catch-up” campaign mode to cover all the children who have been left/ missed out.

4 special vaccination campaigns: January-June 2015 with intensive planning and monitoring.

Learning of Polio program: Apply in planning and implementation.

-First phase: 201 districts
– Second phase: 297 districts
– 82 districts in 4 states of UP, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Thursday, 6 August 2015

Derma high yield notes

1) Most common organism causing tinea- Trichophyton rubrum

2) Most common organism causing tinea capitis- Trichophyton violaceum

3) Most common cranial nerve involved in Hansens- facial

4) Most common nerve taken for nerve biopsy in Hansens- radial cutaneous (upper limb), sural (lower limb)5

) Most common cause of mononeuritis multiplex - Hansen (India), DM (world)

6) Most common cause of ENL- LL> BL7) Most common cause of a negative  Slit skin smear in Hansen- neural leprosy

8)  Cause of Type 1 reaction- BB> BT> BL

9)  DOC for type 1 and type 2 reaction- steroids

10) DOC for chronic, recurrent ENL- thalidomide

11) Most common side effect of dapsone- hemolytic anemia

12) Most common side effect of clofazimine- pigmentation

13) Most common cause of inverted saucer lesion- borderline leprosy

14) Most common cause of leonine facies- LL

15) Earliest sensation lost- temperature

16) Most common Hansen- Borderline Tuberculoid

17) Commonest site for Fixed drug eruption (FDE)- lips

18) DOC for tinea - terbinafine

19) DOC for tinea capitis- griseofulvin

20) Most common type of onychomycosis – Distal and lateral onychomycosis (In HIV, the most common type is proximal subungual onychomycosis and superficial whiteonychomycosis)

21) DOC for sporotrichosis- itraconazole> potassium iodide

22) Most common cause of reactive arthritis- Chlamydia> Shigella

23) Most common Psoriatic arthritis- oligoarticular, asymmetric.

24) DOC for psoriatic arthritis- Methotrexate

25) DOC for arthritis mutilans- etanercept

26) DOC for guttate ps- antibiotics

27) DOC for erythrodermic psoriasis- Methotrexate

28) DOC for pustular psoarisis- Acitretin

29) DOC for early mycosis fungoides- Electron beam therapy > Phototherapy

30) Most common type of pemphigus- pemphigus vulgaris

31) Rarest type of pemphigus- pemphigus vegetans

32) DOC for Dermatiis herpetiformis- Dapsone

33) Most classical joint involved in Psoriatic Arthritis- DIP

34) Most common cause of non bullous impetigo- strepto> staph

35) Most common cause of bullous impetigo- staph

36) Most common underlying disease in kaposis varicelliform eruption - atopic dermatitis

37) Most common site of adult atopic dermatitis- ante cubital fossa

38) Most common site of pediatric atopic dermatitis- cheek

39) Most common cause of cumulative Irritant contact dermatitis- detergents, Wet work

40) Most commonest cause of Allergic contact dermatitis-nickel

41) Most common cause of air borne contact dermatitis- parthenium

42) DOC for air borne contact dermatitis - azathioprine

43) Most common layer of epidermis for lamellar body presence- granular layer

44) Most common layer for synthesis of vitamin D ( Also same answer for presence of langerhans cells)- spinous layer

45) Thickest layer of epidermis- corneum

46) Thinnest layer of epidermis- granular

47) Most common cause of acute paronychia- staph

48) Most common cause of chronic paronychia-candida

49) Most common syphilis transmitted by sexual route- primary

50) Most common syphilis transmitted from infected mother- secondary

51) Most infectious lesion in syphilis- mucous patches

52) Most sensitive test in syphilis- Enzyme Immunoassay> TPPA > FTA-abs

53) Most specific test in syphilis- TPPA> TPHA

54) DOC for chancroid- azithro

55) DOC for LGV and donovanosis- doxy

56) DOC for syphilis in pregnancy- penicillin

57) DOC for urethral discharge and cervical discharge (syndromic management)- azithro+ cefixime

58) DOC for vaginal disch (syndromic management)- fluconazole + secnidazole/metro/tinidazole

59) DOC for bubo (syndromic management)- azithro+ doxy

60) DOC for genital ulcer (syndromic management)- if vesicle - acyclovir,  if not azithro+ benzathine penicillin

61) DOC for neurosyphilis- crystalline aqueous penicillin

62) DOC for penicillin allergy in syphilis- doxy

63) DOC for penicillin allergy in syphilis in pregnancy- desensitization

64) DOC for penicillin allergy in neurosyphilis- desensitization

65) DOC for Impetigo herpetiformis- steroids

66) Investigation of choice in primary syphilis- dark ground illumination

67) Most common cutaneous TB- lupus vulgaris (In children, it is Scrofuloderma)

68) Test of choice for lupus vulgaris- biopsy

69) Most common organism for p versicolor now in India- Malassezia globosa

70) Most common  internal organ inv in leprosy- testis

71) Organ never inv in leprosy- uterus> CNS72) Sensation never lost in hansens- propioception, vibration

73) DOC for Post herpetic neuralgia- Gabapentin

74) Most characteristic of LP on histopathology- basal cell degeneration

75) Best time to read patch test- 4 days

76) Commonest drug for FDE- sulphonamides

77) Commonest cause of Erythema Multiforme- HSV

78) Commonest cause of SJS/TEN- drugs (NSAIDS, anti epileptic,  sulphonamides,  penicillin)

79) DOC for scabies- 5% permethrin

80) DOC for scabies in pregnancy- 5% permethrin

81) DOC for nodular scabies- permethrin+ steroids

82) DOC for nerve abscess- I and D

83) DOC for nodulocystic acne- oral isotretinoin

84) DOC for hormonal acne- OCP with  drosperinone+ estrogens

85) DOC for pediculosis corporis- disinfection of clothes

86) DOC for head louse- 1% permethrin

87) DOC for norwegian scabies- ivermectin

88) Most common shape of burrow in  scabies- S-shaped

89) Most common and earliest manifestation of tuberous sclerosis- ash leaf macule> adenoma sebaceum

90) Earliest manifestation of congenital syphilis- snuffles

91) Best blood test for congenital syphilis- FTA-ABS IgM

92) Most common site for morphoea- limbs

93) Most common cause for salt and pepper skin pigmentation- scleroderma

94) Most common cause of acanthosis nigricans- obesity

95) Most severe form of psoriasis- Von zumbusch

96) Most common melanoma-  superficial spreading melanoma

97) Poorest prognosis in melanoma- nodular

98) Most common type of BCC- noduloulcerative

99) Most common cause of hypopigmented, scaly patches on cheek of children- Pityriasis alba

100) Most common cause of hypopigmented, nonscaly, atrophic patches on cheek of endemic area children- indeterminate hansens

101) Investigation of choice for neurosyphilis- CSF-VDRL

102) Most common type of oral LP- reticulate / white lacy pattern

103) DOC for localised alopecia areata- intralesional steroids

104) Most effective drug in alopecia areata- contact sensitizers

105) commonest autoimmune association in vitiligo- thyroid

106) Commonest agent for leucoderma- paratertiary butyl phenol (PTBP)

107) Commonest agent for hair dye allergic contact dermatitis- paraphenylene diamine (PPD)

108) Commonest agent for footwear allergic contact dermatitis- Mercaptobenzothiazole (MBT)

109) Investigation of choice for Air borne contact dermatitis- photo patch test

110) Commonest extra genital site for primary chancre- lips

111) Commonest cause of recurrent blisters on genitals (healing with hyperpigmentation- FDE) ( if not then herpes genitalis)

112) Commonest vitiligo- Vitiligo vulgaris

113) Most common cause of erythema nodosum- Strepococcus.

114) Most common cause of patchy alopecia- Alopecia areata

115) DOC for rosacea- Metronidazole (topical), Doxy (Oral)

116) Commonest site for primary syphilis chancre- Coronal sulcus

117) First test to become positive in primary syphilis- FTA-Abs

118) Characteristic nail change in LP- Pterygium

119) Commonest cause of apple jelly nodules- Lupus vulgaris

120) Commonest cause of hypopigmented, minimally scaly macules and patches on chest and back of young adults- P. versicolor

Monday, 3 August 2015

Babies in medicine

Its time for babies! So a list of some babies
1) Blueberry muffin baby (indicates extramedullary
hematopoiesis) - Characteristic of Congenital rubella
syndrome, also in metastaic neuroblastoma
2) Harlequin baby - Harlequin Ichthyosis (autosomal
recessive, ABCA12 gene mutation)
3) Collodion baby - Lamellar Ichthyosis (autosomal
recessive, TGM1 gene mutation)
4) Frog faced Baby - Anencephaly
5) Floppy baby - Infant botulism
6) Grey Baby - Chloramphenicol side effect
(Immature hepatic glucuronidation enzymes)
7) Bronze baby - Conjugated hyperbillirubinemia
8) Blue Baby - Methemoglobinemia
9) Battered Baby (Caffey's whiplash shaken baby
syndrome) - Child abuse
10) Cyclops Baby (single median eye with/without
probocosis) - Holoprosencephaly (sonic hedgehog -shh gene mutation)