Thursday, 29 January 2015

Growth factors

Important growth factors-Rota virus-Trypsin
E coli-arginine
Vibrio parahaemolyticus-Normal saline
Atypical Mycobacteria-Aryl sulphate,Amide
Vibrio cholerae-Saline
H.Influenza-Factors V & X
M.Haemophilum-Factor X


1. In a female child at birth oocyte is seen arrested in prophase (diplotene) of meiosis-1.
2. Uteroplacental circulation is established at day 12 (week 2)
3. Feto - placental circulation is established at day 22 (week 4).
4. Placenta has 2 components: fetal & maternal. Fetal component is contributed by trophoblast cells of blastocyst & maternal component is by the decidua basalis.
5. Gap junctions permit cell-to-cell communication of small molecules via their connexon channels.
6. The oral portion of epiglottis is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
7. Thyroid follicles are normally lined by cuboidal epithelium, but they become columnar when stimulated and squamous when inactive.
8. Only the male urethra contains transitional epithelium (in the prostatic portion). Stratified squamous epithelium lines most of the female urethra and the distal end of the cavernous urethra in males.
9. Membranous urethra is lined by stratified (or pseudo-stratified) columnar epithelium.
10. The olfactory epithelium (neuroepithelium) possesses non motile cilia, which act as receptors for odor. They are extensions of the bipolar nerve cells that form part of this tall, pseudo-stratified epithelium located in the roof of the nasal cavity.
11. Terminal bronchioles are lined by an epithelium composed of two cell types: secretory (Clara) cells and ciliated cells. Cartilage is not present in bronchioles.
12. Mucous neck cells are located in the neck of gastric glands in all parts of the stomach, whereas chief (zymogenic) cells are present mostly at fundus of gastric glands and mostly at the fundus part of stomach.
13. Hyaline cartilage is avascular, contains type II collagen. It is located at the articulating ends of long bones.
14. Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue (GALT) is present in the Lamina propria of Mucosa.
15. Hassall corpuscles are concentric accretions of epithelial reticular cells (derived from endoderm) found only in the medulla of the thymus
16. Langerhans cells in the epidermis function as antigen-presenting cells by trapping antigens that penetrate the epidermis and transporting them to regional lymph nodes, where they are presented to T lymphocytes. They originate in the bone marrow and do not arise from epithelium.
17. Coracoid process is an atavistic type of epiphysis.
18. Pneumatic bones have air cells present in them for e.g., Maxilla, frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid and temporal bones.l

Tuesday, 27 January 2015

First line therapies

1) First line of drug in Akathesia ♧ PROPRANOL
2) First line of Treatment in Obstructive sleep apnea/hypopnea syndrome (OSAHS) ♧ CPAP
3) First line injectable drug in treatment of TB ♧ STREPTOMYCIN
4) First line treatment of femoral vein DVT ♧ HEPARIN
5) First line drug for prevention of MTCT in hiv pregnancy ♧ ZIDOVUDINE
6) First line drug in anovulation ♧ CLOMIPHENE
7) First line treatment in Ascites ♧ SALT RESTRICTIONS
8) First line of management in Tension pneumothorax ♧ INSERTION OF NEEDLE IN 2ND
9) First line drug in PTSD ♧ SSRI
10) First line drug in Endometriosis ♧ DANAZOL
11) First line of management in bleeding gastric ulcer(PEPTIC ULCER) ♧ SCLEROTHERAPY WITH ADRENALINE
12) First line management Sever depression episode with psychotic symptoms ♧ AD &
13) First step in the management of Acute upper bleeding ♧ UPPER ENDOSCOPY
14) First line of management in 45 yr old woman present with polymenorrhea for last 6
months ♧ D & C
15) First line drug in a pt of DUB with CYCLICAL menorrhagia ♧ TRANEXAMIC ACID
16) First line of management in 45 yr old lady with DUB from 6 months ♧ D & C
17) First line of management in case of accident n there is damage of cervical spine ♧ STABILISE

Ortho Points

Classification system of bone tumors- ENNEKING classification

All bone tumors in metaphysis except
Epiphyseal- GCT, Chondroblastoma
Diaphyseal- Ewings sarcoma, osteoblastoma/ osteoid osteoma, Fibrous dysplasia sometimes

All tumors occur in less than 20 years age group except
40-60 years- Hemangioma, Chondrosarcoma
20-40 years- GCT
Bimodal- Osteosarcoma
Also remember, Ewings age group is 5-15 years with second decade being more common

Fibrous dysplasia- Neck of femur, flat bones
Simple bone cyst- Proximal humerus
ABC- Proximal femur
Enchondroma- Hand bones
Osteochondroma- Distal femur > Proximal tibia
Osteoid osteoma- Femur diaphysis > Tibia
Osteosarcoma- Distal femur
Chondrosarcoma- Proximal femur
Ewings sarcoma- Femur diaphysis > Flat bones
Chordoma (tumor of notochord remenants)- Sacrum
Admantinoma- Mandible

M.C tumor of bone- Metastasis
M.C Primary tumor of bone- Multiple myeloma > Osteosarcoma
M.C Benign bone tumor- Osteochondroma
M.C true benign bone tumor- Osteoid osteoma
M.C lesion of bone- Fibrous cortical defect
Most common radiation induced tumor- Osteosarcoma > Fibrosarcoma > Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
Most radio and chemosensitive bone tumor- Ewing sarcoma
Tumor having night pains- Osteoid osteoma
Tumor showing diagnostic response to Aspirin/ NSAIDS- Osteoid osteoma
Commonest bone tumor of hand bones is Enshondroma
Codman’s tumor is- Chondroblastoma
Pulsatile bone tumors include Osteoclastoma (GCT), Telengiectatic osteosarcoma, Metastasis from medullary carcinoma thyroid and renal cell carcinoma.
Egg shell calcification is a clinical sign seen in- GCT
Cell of origin of Ewings sarcoma is- Mesenchymal/ Mesodermal
Mode of inheritance in Hereditary multiple exostosis is- Autosomal dominant

Fibrous dysplasia- Ground glass appearance, Rind sign (sclerotic margin around tumor), Shephard crook deformity (collapse of medial part of femoral neck so that proximal femur becomes hook shaped)
Simple bone cyst- Fallen leaf sign (can be seen in ABC but less often)
Hemangioma- Corduroy appearance (Jail house sign), Polka dot pattern
Osteoid osteoma- Nidus > 1.5 cms
GCT- Soap bubble appearance
Osteosarcoma- Codman’s triangle, Sunray appearance (due to calcification along sharpey’s fibers)
Chondrosarcoma- Pop corn like calcification
Ewing sarcoma- Onion peel appearance (intense periosteal reaction in layers), Codman’s triangle
Langerhan cell histiocytosis (Most common is Eosinophilic granuloma, a sub type of LCH)
Ewing sarcoma
Lymphoma/ Leukemia
Gaucher’s Disease
Aneurysmal bone cyst
Infection- Spondylitis

McCune Albright syndrome- Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, Pre cocious puberty, Caif-a-lait spots
Mazabraud syndrome- Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia with intra mural myxomas
Diaphyseal achalasia- Multiple osteochondromatosis/ Hereditary multiple exostosis
Ollier’s disease- Multiple enchondromatosis
Maffuci syndrome- Ollier’s disease plus multiple cavernous hemnagiomas

Chondroblastoma- Chicken wire appearance
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma- Storiform pattern
Fibrosarcoma- Herring borne pattern
GCT VARIANTS (where giant cells are there on biopsy)- Chondroblastoma (closest), ABC, SBC, Osteosarcoma with giant cells, fibrous dysplasia, non-ossifying fibroma
Ewings sarcoma- Small round cells (Also seen in Lymphomas, neuroblastoma, pineoblastoma, medulloblastoma, retinoblastoma- so called Primitive neuro ectodermal tumors)
Biphasic pattern- Synovial cell sarcoma

Ewings sarcoma- trl 11;22 (present in 85% cases), CD-99 and MIC-2 gene positive
Synovial cell sarcoma- trl X;18
Remember, SYNOVIAL SARCOMA is a soft tissue tumor that does not have synovial origin despite its name. It is a rare but aggressive tumor that arises from tendon sheaths or joint capsules where there are multipotent stem cell rests that differentiate into mesenchymal as well as epithelial structures, hence a BIPHASIC TUMOR. It is characterized by trl (X;18). Excision is the treatment of choice.
Also know,
Metastasis can be blastic/ sclerotic or lytic. Blastic are seen in prostate carcinoma and seminoma while lytic are seen in Kidney, Thyroid and Lung malignancies. However, the most common metastasis to bone come from breast carcinoma (however, its prostate in males) and are mixed and most commonly affect the thoracic spine.
And not to forget these markers:
Bone Resorption :
• Pyridinoline
• Deoxypyridinoline
• Collagen Telopeptides
• Hydroxyproline
• TRAP (Tartarate resistant acid phosphatase)
Bone Formation :
• Bone specific Alkaline Phosphatase
• Serum Osteocalcin
• Carboxy terminal extension peptide of procollagen -1

(#) Prognostic factors for Ewings sarcoma- The most unfavorable prognostic factor in Ewing’s sarcoma is the presence of distant metastasis at diagnosis. Other unfavourable prognostic factors include an age older than 10 years, a size larger than 200 ml, more central lesions (as in the pelvis or spine), and poor response to chemotherapy. Patients with such lesions have a reduced chance of survival. The histological grade is of no prognostic significance, however, as all Ewing’s sarcomas are of high grade. Fever, anemia, and elevation of the number and values of WBC, ESR, and LDH have been reported to indicate more extensive disease and a poorer prognosis.
(#) Extra osseous osteosarcoma and ewing sarcoma are also known to occur. These generally involve older adults and have relatively bad prognosis as compared to the osseous counter parts. Most common site for extra osseous Ewings is para vertebral musculature and chest wall while its thigh for extra osseous osteosarcoma

Non Hodgkin's lymphoma

Non hodgkins lymphomas(NHL) revision.
1. Most common form of indolent NHL in United states - Follicular lymphoma.
2. Most common form of NHL - diffuse large B cell lymphoma.
3. Most common extra nodal site of NHL - stomach.
4. Most lymphoid neoplasms are of B cell origin (85-90%)
5. t (14:18) which juxtaposes IgH locus on ch.14 with bcl2 on ch.18 is seen in follicular lymphoma.
6. Two types of cells seen in follicular lymphoma are centrocytes and centroblasts.
7. Marker used for diagnosis of FL is bcl2 positive and CD 5 negative. 8. Most common site of endemic Burkitt s lymphoma - jaw or mandible.
8. Most common site of sporadic burkitt lymphoma is ileocaecum or peritoneum.
9. t (8:14) or c - myc seen in burkitt lymphoma.
10. All endemic burkitt s lymphoma are latently infected with EBV which is also present in 15 to 20% of sporadic cases.
11. Starry sky appearance due to interspersed phagocytes amongst the lymphoid cells seen in burkitt lymphoma.
12. Cells of burkitt are bcl6 positive and bcl2 negative.
13. t(11:14) seen in mantle cell lymphoma.
14. Mantle cell lymphoma shows small cleaved cells but no centroblasts.
15. Markers for mantle cell lymphoma are cyclin D1. Cells are CD5 positive and CD 23 negative. This helps to differentiate mantle cell lymphoma from CLL which shows CD5 positive and CD5 positive profile.


Medicine Pearls:
Rabies .................Negri bodies
Small pox ...........Gaurnier bodies
Molluscum Contagiosum........Henderson Roterson bodies
Fowl pox................Bollinger bodies
Trachoma...........Halberstaedter......... Prowazek Bodies
Cowdry type ...A............
a. Herpes Virus( Lipschutz Inclusions)
b. Yellow fever ( Torres Bodies)
Cowdrey Type ...B.....
a. Adeno Virus ( Basophilic)
b. Poliovirus ( acidophilic)
Miyagawa’s granulocorpusles ..........Buboes from LGV
Lygranum Antigen...............LGV
Halberstaedter- Prowazek Bodies ............Trachoma
Morula cells with Ig M Deposits............. Tryponosomiasis
Leishman Donovan Bodies............. Kala –azar
Call- Exner bodies............Spherical Globules surrounded by
Granulosa cells in ovary
Walthard Inclusions................In ovarian Cortex.
Babes- Ernst granules................ Corynebacterium Diptheriae
Donovan bodies ........... Granuloma Inguinale
Psittacosis................LCL bodies ( Levinthal Cole Lille Bodies)
Lewis Bodies............ Parkinsonism
Russel Bodies..............Multiple Myeloma
Warthin- Finkedly Giant Cells..............Measles
b) Herpes
torres body.............. yellow fever
bracht wachter bodies............. infective endocarditis
councilmann bodies...............dying hepatocytes
keratin pearls..............sq. cell carcinoma
pick body..............pick's ds
verocay body....................schwannoma
psammoma body-...................papillary adenocarcinoma in
and serous cystadenoma in ovary


Some important pressures
ICP:: 2-12 mm Hg (50-180 mm Water)
IOP:: 10-20 mm Hg
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure:: 6-12 mm Hg (Swan Ganz)
Mean pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) :: 15 mmHg
Portal venous pressure:: 5-10 mm Hg
Intrauterine pressure in L1:: 40-50 mm Hg
Intrauterine pressure in L2 & L3:: 100-120 mm Hg
Intrathoracic pressure:: -3.8 to -6 mm Hg (- 5 to - 8 cm water)
Intrapulmonary pressure:: -1 to +1 cm water
Interstitial pressure:: -5 to 0 mm Hg
Calf pressure during walking:: 200 mm Hg
Venous pressure at the ankle during quiet standing :: 85-90 mm Hg
Cerebral perfusion pressure:: 50-70 mmhg
First breath inflation pressure:: 25 - 40 cm H20
Synovial fluid pressure:: -4 to -6 mm Hg
Epidural negative pressure: -4 to -6 mm Hg

Monday, 26 January 2015


Some important single liners about pheochromocytoma:(Ref:Harrison 18th ed)

i)Most sensitive biochemical test for pheochromocytoma- Plasma metanephrine
ii)Most specific biochemical test for pheochromocytoma- Urinary metanephrine
iii)Investigation of choice for adrenal pheochromocytoma-MRI
iv)Investigation of choice for extra-adrenal pheochromocytoma-DOPA PET>MIBG scan
v)Major catecholamine secreted by adrenal pheochromocytoma-Nor-epinephrine
vi)Major catecholamine secreted by extra-adrenal pheochromocytoma- Nor-epinephrine
vii)Major catecholamine secreted by malignant pheochromocytoma- Dopamine
viii)The major catecholamine secreted by a NORMAL adrenal gland- Epinephrine

Nerve Entrapment conditions

Nerve entrapment conditions :-

1.Median nerve :-

involved in carpal tunnel syndrome at wrist ( flexor retinaculum)

Compressed beneath the struther's ligament , bicipital aponeurosis or between two heads of pronator teres at elbow ( Anterior interosseous branch of median nerve )

2. Ulnar nerve

Involved at elbow by fracture medial condyle humerous/ compressed between the two heads of flexor carpi ulnaris( cubital tunnel syndrome)-
Cubital tunnel roof formed by -" OSBORNE'S LIGAMENT " which is aponeurotic arcade between humeroulnar head of flexor carpi ulnaris and floor formed by -" MEDIAL COLLATERAL LIGAMENT "

Compressed in Guyon's canal ( between hook of hamate and flexors tendons)

3. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

Involved / compressed in meralgia parestethica between the fibres of inguinal ligament

Posterior tibial nerve :-

Involved / compressed in tarsal tunnel syndrome behind and below the medial malleolus

Morton's metatarsalgia :-

Compression of the interdigital nerves ( particularly 2 nd & 3rd ) beneath the plantar fascia

6. Lower trunk of brachial plexus (C8,T1) :-

Compressed by cervical rib / thoracic outlet syndrome /aberrantly inserted scaleneus anterior muscle / fracture clavicle along with involvement of subclavian vessels

7. Superficial sensory radial nerve :-

Wartenberg's Syndrome


compressive neuropathy of the superficial sensory radial nerve (SRN);

also called "cheiralgia patesthetica"

sensory manifestation only

no motor deficits

Patho anatomy:-

SRN compressed by scissoring action of brachioradialis and ECRL tendons during forearm pronation

also by fascial bands at its exit site in the subcutaneous plane

8. Piriformis syndrome :-

Entrapment neuropathy of sciatic nerve

9. Arcade of frohse :-

Compressive neuropathy of posterior interosseous branch of radial nerve -" RADIAL TUNNEL SYNDROME "

Posterior interosseous nerve syndrome is an entrapment neuropathy of the posterior interosseous nerve, at the location where this nerve passes through the radial tunnel.

The posterior interosseous nerve enters the radial tunnel underneath a musculotendious arch, the arcade of Frohse.

It is formed by the upper free border of the superficial head of the supinator.

The arcade of Frohse is a semicircular fibrous arch that medially remains fibrous. It is found in 30-80% of anatomical specimens.

The radial tunnel begins in the distal upper arm, between the brachioradialis and the bracialis. The tunnel ends at the distal edge of the supinator in the proximal forearm.The posterior interosseous nerve rests on the deep head of the supinator


Osteochondritis most common:
1.Perthes disease-Femoral head
2.Panes disease-Capitulum
3.Kienboch's disease-Lunate bone
4.Osgood shlatter disease-Tibial tubercle
5.Server's disease-Calcaneal tuberosity
6.Kohler's disease-Navicular bone
7.Freiberg's disease-Metatarsal head
8.Scheurmann's disease-ring epiphysis of vertebrae
9.Calves disease-Central bony nucleus of vertebral body

Bone lesions

Commonest sites of bone lesions
1.Osteosarcoma-Lower end of femur
2.Osteoclastoma-Lower end of femur
3.Ewing's sarcoma-Tibia
4.Osteoid osteoma-Tibia
5.Osteochondroma-Metaphysis of femur
6.Multiple myeloma-Vertebra
7.Bone Secondaries-Vertebra
8.Ivory osteoma-Frontal sinus
10.Chordoma-Sacrum and cervical spine
11.Enchondroma-Small bones of hands and feet
12.Simple bone cyst-Upper end of humerus
13.Aneurysmal bone cyst-Lower end of humerus
14.Rhabdomyosarcoma-Head and neck regions

High yield ENT and Opthalmology

5 cleans for eliminatn of neonatal tetanus
Clean delivary surface
Clean hands
Clean cord cut
Clean cord tie
Clean cord stump
5 f's of sanitation barrier
5 d's of ill health
5 i's of ageing
Causes of lagopthalmos..oc pens..
Orbicularis oculi palsy
Nocturnal lagopth
CI of stapedectomy -IPOD
Only hearing ear

Squelae of otitis media -SCALP COST
Learning disability
Perforation tm
Conductive HL
Ossicular necrosis
Speech impairment

Local causes of epistaxis -Indian Drink FANTA
Foreign body

Etiology of submucous fibrosis -STAMINA
Socio eco
Areca nuts
Multi factorial
Immune status

Indications of
tympanoplasty -ABCDE S
Age above 10years
Conductive deafness corrected
Dry perforation
Eustachian tube func properly
Stapes mobile
Cherry red spot in retina-
Rembr:Cherry Tree Never Grows Tall

Func of tracheostomy -VIP BAR
Protects d airways
Administer of
Removal of secretions

Interstial keratitis -TIC TAC S                                    
Inherited syphilis
Congenital syphilis
Acquired syphilis
Cogan syn

Familial progress HL
Noise induced
Systemic diseases
Sudden hearing loss

Retinal detachment causes 4'F
Falling acuity
Field loss

D/D of
membrane over tonsillitis:
M2-VIDAAL (form Widal test for
T yphoid)
It is:
- Membranous tonsillitis
- Malignancy
- Vincent's angina
- Infectious mononucleosis
- Diptheria
- Apthous ulcers
- Agranulocytosis
- Ludwig's angina
- T : Trauma
FESS Indications :-
Fungal sinusitis
AC polyp
Recurrent bacterial sinusitis
Endoscopic septoplasty
Removal of foreign bodies

Indications for Caldwell luc-
Chronic  max sinusitis
Oroantral fistula
Fracture maxilla
Foreign body removal
Biopsy for suspected neoplasm
Opening of pterygopalatine fossa for ligation of max artery
Antrochoanal polyp recurrence
Reduction of orbital blow out fracture
Dental cyst

Causes of atropic rhinitis -
Endocrinal Disturbance
Nutritional defeciency-vit             A,D,Fe

Causes of stridor :-
Abscess(retro pharyngeal,peri tonsillar)
Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
Bacterial tracheitis
Foreign body
Injury,Inf. Mononucleosis
Jaw and tongue abnormalities
Laryngeal web
Laryngeal edema

Etiology of Submuous Fibrosis.STAMINA
S-Socio-economic ststus
A-Areca Nuts
I-Immmune process

Classification of secondary glaucoma.-lip tip shant
Lens induced
Iridocorneal dystrophy
Steroid induced
Causes of scleritis
E -

Friday, 23 January 2015


Sutures used in:
1. Vascular repair - Prolene (non absorbable)
2. Biliary surgery - Vicryl (absorbable)
3. Urological surgery - Vicryl (absorbable)
4. Abdominal sheath - Prolene (non absorbable). Ideal suture length should be 4 times the length of the abdominal sheath wound
5. Bowel anastomosis - absorbable(vicryl) or non- absorbable (silk)

Tuesday, 20 January 2015

Anatomy one liners

Anatomy One Liners
1) Ascending colon 12.5cm long - from the caecum to the inferior surface of
the right lobe of liver - usually retroperitoneal
(2) Transverse colon 50cm long
- from the right colic flexure to the left colic flexure
- suspended by transverse mesocolon attached to the anterior border of pancreas
(3) Descending colon - 25cm long
- from left colic flexure to the sigmoid colon
- it is narrower than ascending colon
- usually it is retroperitoneal
(4) Sigmoid colon 37.5cm long
- from pelvic brim to the third piece of sacrum, where it becomes rectum - suspended by sigmoid mesocolon
Mesentery :-♦The mesentery of the small intestine (or) mesentery proper is a broad, fan-shaped fold of peritoneum which suspends the coils of jejunum and ileum from the posterior abdominal wall
Root of mesentery - 15cm long
- directed obliquely downwards and to the right
- It extends from the duodenojejunal flexure on the left side of vertebra L2 to the upper part of the right sacroiliac joint
- It crosses the following :
(1) Third part of duodenum where the superior mesenteric vessels enter into it
(2) The abdominal aorta
(3) The inferior vena cava
(4) The right ureter
(5) The right psoas major
The free or intestinal border is 6meter long, thrown into pleats.
Development of diaphragm by
1. Septum transverum
2.pleuro peritoneal membrane
3.somites (3-5th)
4.ventral pleural sac
5.mesentry of oesophagus

Tonsil develop embryologically from 2nd pharyngeal pouch
Parathyroid is develop from 3rd & 4th brachial pouches
Foot plate of stapes is develop from otic capsule
Umbilical vesicle attain full development in 4th week of foetus
Urachal fistula result from persistant allantois
Tensor tympani and tensor palatine supplied by trigeminal.Levator palatine supplied by suoerior laryngeal nerve.
Derivatives of pharyngeal pouch
1st- tubotympanic recess
3rd-inf parathyroid,thymus
4th-sup parathyroid ,thyroid
5th-ultimobrachial body

Mesodermal derivatives of brachial arch
1st-malleus,incus,ant ligament of malleus,sphenomandibular ligament
2nd-stape,styloid process,stylohyoid ligament,lesser cornu of hyoid,sup part of hyoid
3rd-greater cornu of hyoid,lower part of body of hyoid
4n6th-laryngeal cartilage
1st pharyngeal arch cartilage-meckel cartilage
2nd pharyngeal arch cartilage-reichert cartilage

TYMPANIC membrane dev frm all the three germ layers
Pinna dev frm 1st n 2nd pharyngeal arches
Foot plate and annular ligament frm otic capsule
Left umbilical vein-ligamentum teres
Ductus afteriosus-ligamentum arteriosum
Ductus venosus-ligamentum venosum
Septum primum n secondum-fossa ovalis n annulus ovalis respctvl
Distal umbilical art-median umb ligm
Prxm-sup vesical art
Foregut forms -Oesophagus
- The stomach
- Upper part of duodenum upto the opening of
common bile duct
Midgut forms - Rest of the duodenum
- Jejunum
- The ileum
- The appendix
- The caecum
- The ascending colon
- The right two - thirds of transverse colon
Hindgut forms -Left one third of transverse colon
- The descending colon
- The sigmoid colon
- Proximal upper part of the rectum
Nerve supply of anal canal
(1) Above the pectinate line
- Sympathetic - Inferior hypogastric plexus - L1 & L2
- Parasympathetic- pelvic splanchnic S2,S3,S4
- Pain is carried by both of them
(2) Below the pectinate line
- somatic
- Inferior rectal S2,S3,S4 - nerves
(3) Sphincters - Internal sphincter - contraction - sympathetic
nerve / relaxation - parasympathetic. N
External sphincter - inferior rectal nerve & by
perineal branch of 4th sacral. N
♦Genital tubercle forms - clitoris
- urethral folds forms - labia minora
- genital swelling form - labia majora
- urogenital membrane gets ruptured to form the vestibule
Palatal muscles:
All muscles of soft palate supplied by vagus nerve thru pharyngeal plexus except tensor veli palati supplied by mandibular nerve
pharyngeal muscles:
All muscles of pharynx are supplied by vagus nerve except stylo pharyngeus supplied by Glossopharyngeal nerve

All muscles of larynx supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve except cricothyroid supplied by external laryngeal nerve (superior LN)
Most frequently fractured bone of body: Clavicle
Most frequently dislocated carpal bone: Lunate
Most frequently fractured carpal bone:Scaphoid
Osseous structure palpated deep to "anatomical snuff box": Scaphoid
Fracture of distal radius that produces "dinner fork" appearance: Colles' fracture
Nerve injured with fracture of surgical neck of humerus: Axillary
Nerve injured with fracture of shaft of humerus: Radial
Nerve injured that results in wrist drop: Radial
Nerve injured with fracture of medial humeral epicondyle: Ulnar
Muscle that is the chief flexor and chief extensor at shoulder joint: Deltoid
Muscles innervated by axillary nerve: Deltoid and teres minor
Muscle that initiates abduction of arm: Supraspinatus
Most commonly torn tendon of rotator cuff: Supraspinatus
Two muscles that rotate scapula for full abduction of arm: Trapezius and serratus anterior
Tendon that courses through shoulder joint: Long head of biceps
Chief supinator muscle of hand: Biceps brachii
Primary (major) flexor of the forearm: Brachialis
Orientation of structures located in the cubital fossa-Lateral to Medial: Tendon biceps brachii, brachial a., median n.
Injury to what nerve causes winged scapula: Long thoracic nerve
Spinal levels of axillary nerve: C5 and C6
Spinal levels of innervation to muscles of the hand: C8 and T1
Dermatome of thumb: C6
Nerve to thenar compartment: Recurrent branch of Median
Innervation of adductor pollicis: Ulnar (deep br.)
Innervation to all interosseous muscles: Ulnar (deep br.)
Innervation to nail bed of middle finger: Median nerve
Innervation to nail bed of ring finger: Ulnar and median
Region affected by upper trunk injury of brachial plexus (C5-C6): Shoulder
Region affected by lower trunk injury of brachial plexus (C8-T1): Intrinsic hand muscles
Nerve compressed with carpal tunnel syndrome: Median
Nerve affected by cubital tunnel syndrome: Ulnar
Paralysis of which muscles results in total "claw" hand: Lumbricals
Dermatome around nipple: T4
Vertebral level at inferior angle of scapula: TV7
Structure that lies immediately posterior to manubrium: Thymus
Vertebral level associated with sternal angle: Disc between TV4-5
Rib related to oblique fissure of lung posteriorly: 2nd
Rib paralleled by horizontal fissure of right lung: 4th
Inferior extent of lung at mid-clavicular line: 6th rib
Inferior extent of pleura at mid-clavicular line: 8th rib
Inferior extent of lung at mid-axillary line: 8th rib
Inferior extent of pleura at mid-axillary line: 10th rib
Inferior extent of lung posteriorly : 10th rib
Inferior extent of pleura posteriorly: 12th rib
Innervation of costal pleura: Intercostal nerve
Innervation of mediastinal pleura: Phrenic nerve
Level where ascending aorta is continuous with arch of aorta: TV4-5
Level where arch of aorta is continuous with descending aorta: TV4-5
Effect of sympathetic nerves on lungs: Bronchodilation, Vasoconstriction
Effect of parasympathetic nerves on lungs: Bronchoconstriction, Vasodilation
Rationale for aspirated small objects to go to right primary bronchus: Wider diameter, shorter and more vertical
Needle location for therapeutic pleural tapping: Superior to 12th rib, posteriorly
Name given to portion of right ventricle prior to beginning of pulmonary trunk: conus arteriosum or infundibulum
Site for auscultation of pulmonary valve: Left 2nd interspace
Site for auscultation of aortic valve: Right 2nd interspace
Site for auscultation of tricuspid valve: Xiphisternal joint
Site for auscultation of mitral valve: Left 5th interspace, mid-clavicular line
Heart chamber with greatest sternocostal projection: Right ventricle
Chamber that forms apex of heart: Left ventricle
Major chamber that forms base of heart: Left atrium
Heart chamber that contains moderator band: Right ventricle
Ridge located between sinus venarum and right ventricle: Cristae
terminalis at the root of the SVC
Artery that determines coronary dominance: Posterior interventricular
Usual origin of SA and AV nodal arteries: Right coronary


AIPG 2001 TO 2012: ANATOMY
1. All are true about inguinal canal except:
a) Conjoint tendon forms part of the posterior wall
b) Superficial ring is found in external oblique aponeurosis
c) Deep ring is an opening in transversalis abdominis
d) Internal oblique forms both anterior and posterior wall
Answer: Deep ring is an opening in transversalis abdominis

2. The right gastro-epiploic artery is a branch of the
a) Left gastric
b) Splenic
c) Celiac trunk.
d) Gastro-duodenal
Answer: Gastro-duodenal

3. Motor supply of the diaphragm is
a) Thoraco-dorsal nerve
b) Inter-costal nerves
c) Phrenic nerve
d) Sympathetic nerves
Answer: Phrenic nerve

4. False statement regarding pudendal nerve is:
a) Both sensory and motor
b) Derived from S2, 3, 4 spinal nerve roots
c) Leaves pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen
d) Main nerve supply of pelvic organs
Answer: Leaves pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen

5. In a post polio case, ilio-tibial tract contracture is likely to result in.
a) Extension at the hip and knee
b) Extension at the hip
c) Flexion at the hip and the knee
d) Extension at the knee
Answer: Flexion at the hip and the knee

6. All of the following are supplied by the facial nerve except:
a) Lacrimal gland
b) Submandibular gland
c) Nasal glands
d) Parotid gland
Answer: Parotid gland

7. In the fracture of middle cranial fossa, absence of tears would be due to lesion in:
a) Trigeminal ganglion
b) Ciliary ganglion
c) Greater petrosal nerve
d) Cervical ganglion
Answer: Greater petrosal nerve

8. Occlusion of the anterior descending branch of LAD will lead to infarction of which area?
a) Posterior part of the inter-ventricular septum
b) Anterior wall of the left ventricle
c) Lateral part of the heart
d) Inferior surface of right ventricle
Answer: Anterior wall of the left ventricle

9. All of the following are true about coronary artery except:
a) Right coronary artery lies in right anterior coronary sulcus
b) Left anterior descending artery is a branch of left coronary artery
c) Usually 3 obtuse marginal arteries arise from left coronary artery
d) In 85% cases posterior descending inter-ventricular artery arises from right coronary artery
Answer: Usually 3 obtuse marginal arteries arise from left coronary artery

1. All the following are derivatives of the neural crest, except:
a) Melanocyte
b) Adrenal medulla
c) Sympathetic ganglia
d) Cauda equine
Answer: Cauda equine

2. Which of the following is true regarding gastrulation?
a) Establishes all the three germ layer
b) Occurs at the caudal end of the embryo prior to its cephalic end
c) Involves the hypoblastic cells of inner cell mass
d) Usually occurs at 4 weeks
Answer: Establishes all the three germ layer

3. All the following features are seen in neurons from dorsal root ganglia, except:
a) They have centrally located nuclei
b) They are derived from neural crest cells
c) They are multi-polar
d) They contain lipofuscin granules
Answer: They are multi-polar

4. Elastic cartilage is found in
a) Auditory tube
b) Nasal septum
c) Articular cartilage
d) Coastal cartilage
Answer: Auditory tube

5. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:
a) Coraco-clavicular ligament
b) Coraco-acromial ligament
c) Costo-clavicular ligament
d) Coraco-humeral ligament
Answer: Coraco-clavicular ligament

6. The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of
a) Femoral artery
b) External iliac artery
c) Internal iliac artery
d) Aorta
Answer: Femoral artery

7. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur through all the following except:
a) Esophageal opening
b) Costo-vertebral triangle
c) Costal and sternal attachment of diaphragm
d) Inferior vena cava opening
Answer: Inferior vena cava opening

8. Ureteric construction is seen at all the following positions, EXCEPT:
a) Uretero-pelvic junction
b) Uretero-vesicle junction
c) Crossing of iliac artery
d) Ischial spine
Answer: Ischial spine

9. All the following are true regarding blood supply to the kidney, EXCEPT:
a) Stellate veins drain superficial zone
b) It is a type of portal-circulation
c) The renal artery divides into five segmental arteries before entering the hilum
d) Its segmental arteries are end-arteries
Answer: It is a type of portal-circulation

10. A patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing stools. The nerve mediating this pain is.
a) Hypogastric nerve
b) Pudendal nerve
c) Splanchnic visceral nerve
d) Sympathetic plexus
Answer: Pudendal nerve

11. Which of the following muscles is supplied by mandibular nerve?
a) Stapedius
b) Buccinator
c) Tensor veli palati
d) Posterior belly of digastric
Answer: Tensor veli palate

12. The sensory supply of the palate is through all of the following except:
a) Facial nerve
b) Hypoglossal nerve
c) Glosso-pharyngeal nerve
d) Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

13. All of the following are features of large intestine, EXCEPT:
a) Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in formation of stools
b) It is a site of muco-cutaneous junction
c) Its epithelium contains goblets cells in large numbers
d) Absorbs salt and water
Answer: Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in formation of stools

1. The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between two cells are called.
a) Gap junctions
b) Tight junction
c) Anchoring junction
d) Focal junctions
Answer: Gap junctions

2. The cells belonging to the following type of epithelium are provided with extra reserve of cell membrane.
a) Transitional epithelium
b) Stratified squamous
c) Stratified cuboidal
d) Stratified columnar
Answer: Transitional epithelium

3. All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis, except:
a) Mastoid process
b) Tubercles of Humerus
c) Trochanters of femur
d) Condyles of tibia
Answer: Condyles of tibia

4. All of the following statements are true for metaphysis of bone except:
a) It is the strongest part of bone
b) It is the most vascular part of bone
c) Growth activity is maximized here
d) It is the region favoring hematogenous spread of infection
Answer: It is the strongest part of bone.

5. All of following features can be observed after the injury to axillary nerve, except:
a) Loss of rounded contour of shoulder
b) Loss of sensation along lateral side of upper arm
c) Loss of overhead abduction
d) Atrophy of deltoid muscle
Answer: Loss of overhead abduction

6. Injury to radial nerve in lower part of spiral groove:
a) Spares nerve supply to extensor carpi radialis longus
b) Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle
c) Leaves extensions at elbow joint intact
d) Atrophy of deltoid muscle
Answer: Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle

7. The right coronary artery supplies all of the following parts of the conducting system in the heart except:
a) SA Node
b) AV Node
c) AV Bundle
d) Right Bundle branch
Answer: Right Bundle branch

8. The middle cardiac vein is located at the.
a) Anterior inter-ventricular sulcus
b) Posterior inter-ventricular sulcus
c) Posterior AV groove
d) Anterior AV groove
Answer: Posterior inter-ventricular sulcus

9. In a patient with a tumor in superior mediastinum compressing the superior vena cava, all of the following veins would serve as alternate pathways for the blood to return to the right atrium, except:
a) Lateral thoracic vein
b) Internal thoracic vein
c) Hemi-Azygos vein
d) Vertebral venous plexus
Answer: Vertebral venous plexus

10. The lumbar region of the vertebral column permits all of the following movements except:
a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Lateral flexion
d) Rotation
Answer: Rotation (Most correct answer)

11. The blood vessel related to the para-duodenal fossa is.
a) Gonadal vein
b) Superior mesenteric artery
c) Portal vein
d) Inferior mesenteric vein
Answer: Inferior mesenteric vein

12. All of the following muscles are grouped together as “muscles of mastication’’ except:
a) Buccinator
b) Masseter
c) Temporalis
d) Pterygoid
Answer: Buccinator

13. The commonest variation in the arteries arising from the arch of aorta is:
a) Absence of brachiocephalic trunk
b) Left vertebral artery arising from the arch
c) Left common carotid artery arising from brachio cephalic trunk
d) Presence of retro-esophageal subclavian artery
Answer: Left common carotid artery arising from brachio cephalic trunk

1. The first costo-chondral joint is a
a) Syncendrosis
b) Fibrous joint
c) Synovial joint
d) Syndesmosis
Answer: Syncendrosis

2. After radical mastectomy there was injury to the long thoracic nerve. The integrity of the nerve can be tested at the bedside by asking the patient to:
a) Shrug the shoulders
b) Raise the arm above the head on the affected side
c) Touch the opposite shoulder
d) Lift a heavy object from the ground
Answer: Raise the arm above the head on the affected side

3. An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung due to all of the following features except:
a) Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung
b) Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left bronchus
c) Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the right lung
d) Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus
Answer: Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung

4. While exposing the kidney from behind all of the following nerves are liable to injury except:
a) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
b) Ilio-inguinal nerve
c) Sub-costal nerve
d) Ilio-hypogastric nerve
Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

5. Infection/ inflammation of all of the following causes enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes except
a) Isthmus of uterine tube
b) Inferior part of anal canal
c) Big toe
d) Penile urethra
Answer: Penile urethra

6. The intricately and prodigiously looped system of veins and arteries that lie on the surface of the epididymis is known as
a) Choroid plexus
b) Tuberal plexus
c) Pampiniform Plexus
d) Pectiniform septum
Answer: Pampiniform Plexus

7. The movement at the following joint permits a person to look towards the right or left:
a) Atlanto-occipital joint
b) Atlanto-axial joint
c) C2-C3 joint
d) C3-C4 joint
Answer: Atlanto-axial joint

8. The articular cartilage is characterized by all of the following features except:
a) It is devoid of peri-chondrium
b) It has a rich nerve supply
c) It is avascular
d) It lacks the capacity to regenerate
Answer: It has a rich nerve supply

9. All of the following are categorized as secondary lymphoid organs except
a) Lymph nodes
b) Spleen
c) Thymus
d) Sub-epithelial collections of lymphocytes
Answer: Thymus

10. Which of following is the feature of Y chromosome?
a) Acro-centric
b) Telocentric
c) Sub-Metacentric
d) Metacentric
Answer: Acro-centric

11. The Couinaud’s segmental nomenclature is based on the position of the:
a) Hepatic veins and portal vein
b) Hepatic veins and biliary ducts
c) Portal vein and biliary ducts
d) Portal vein and hepatic artery
Answer: Hepatic veins and portal vein (Most correct answer)

1. The carpal tunnel contains all structures except
a) Median nerve
b) Flexor pollicis longus
c) Flexor digitorum superficialis
d) Flexor carpi radialis
Answer: Flexor carpi radialis

2. The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except
a) Femoral vein
b) Inguinal ligament
c) Femoral artery
d) Lacunar ligament
Answer: Femoral artery

3. While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along?
a) Upper border of the rib
b) Lowe border of the rib
c) In the center of the inter-costal space
d) In anterior part of inter-costal space
Answer: Upper border of the rib

4. Benign prostatic hypertrophy results in obstruction of the urinary tract. The specific condition is associated with enlargement of the:
a) Entire prostate gland
b) Lateral lobes
c) Median lobe
d) Posterior lobes
Answer: Median lobe

5. The prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the following features, except that it
a) Is the widest and most dilatable part
b) Presents a concavity posteriorly
c) Lies closer to anterior surface of prostate
d) Receives Prostatic ductules along its posterior wall
Answer: Presents a concavity posteriorly

6. All of the following statements regarding vas deference are true; except: 
a) The terminal part is dilated to form ampulla
b) It crosses ureter in the region of ischial spine
c) It passes lateral to inferior epigastric artery at deep inguinal ring
d) It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum
Answer: It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum

7. The following group of lymph nodes receives lymphatics from the uterus except
a) External iliac
b) Internal iliac
c) Superficial inguinal
d) Deep inguinal
Answer: Deep inguinal

8 In an adult male, on per-rectal examination, the following structures can be felt anteriorly except
a) Internal iliac lymph nodes
b) Bulb of the penis
b) Prostate
d) Seminal vesicle when enlarged
Answer: Internal iliac lymph nodes

9. All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery except
a) Superior thyroid artery
b) Anterior Ethmoidal artery
c) Occipital artery
d) Posterior auricular artery
Answer: Anterior Ethmoidal artery

10. Paralysis of 3rd, 4th, 6th nerves with involvement of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve; localizes the lesion to:
a) Cavernous sinus
b) Apex of orbit
c) Brainstem
d) Base of skull
Answer: Cavernous sinus

11. The superior oblique muscle is supplied by.
a) 3rd cranial nerve
b) 4th cranial nerve
c) 5th cranial nerve
d) 6th cranial nerve
Answer: 4th cranial nerve

12 The following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve are true except that it:
a) Carries secreto-motor fibers to submandibular gland
b) Joins lingual nerve in infra-temporal fossa
c) A branch of facial nerve
d) Contains postganglionic para-sympathetic fibers
Answer: Contains postganglionic para-sympathetic fibers

13. The type of joint between the sacrum and the coccyx is a:
a) Symphysis
b) Syostosis
c) Synchondrosis
d) Syndesmosis
Answer: Symphysis

14. All of the following physiological processes occur during the growth at the epiphyseal plate except
a) Proliferation and hypertrophy.
d) Calcification and ossification.
c) Vasculo-genesis and erosion
d) Replacement of red bone marrow with yellow marrow.
Answer: Replacement of red bone marrow with yellow marrow

15. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle.
a) Inter-phase
b) Metaphase
c) GI phase
d) Telophase
Answer: Inter-phase

1. Which of the following is an intra-articular tendon?
a) Sartorius
b) Semitendinosus
c) Anconeus
d) Popliteus
Answer: Popliteus

2. Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block?
a) Miosis
b) Exophthalmos
c) Nasal congestion
d) Conjunctival redness
Answer: Exophthalmos

3. A 34-year-old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. The physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient noticed that she could not extend her right hand above her head to brush her hair. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of additional harm?
a) Damage to scalenus medius
b) Injury to supra-scapular nerve
c) Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve
d) Spread of infection to shoulder joint
Answer: Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve

4. Middle meningeal artery is direct branch of:
a) External carotid artery
b) Internal maxillary artery
c) Superficial temporal artery
d) Middle cerebral artery
Answer: Internal maxillary artery

5 In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at:
a) Lower border of L1
b) Lower border of L3
c) Lower border of S1
d) Lower border of L5
Answer: Lower border of L1

6. Lymphatic drainage of the cervix occurs by all of the following lymph nodes except:
a) Parametrial lymph nodes
b) Deep inguinal lymph nodes
c) Obturator lymph nodes
d) Ext. iliac lymph nodes
Answer: Deep inguinal lymph nodes

7. All of the following are the components of the white pulp of spleen, except:
a) Peri-arteriolar lymphoid sheath
b) B cells
c) Antigen presenting cells
d) Vascular sinus
Answer: Vascular sinus

8. Polar bodies are formed during
a) Spermatogenesis
b) Organogenesis
c) Oogenesis
d) Morphogenesis
Answer: Oogenesis

1. Primordial germ cell is derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Meso-dermal sinus
Answer: Ectoderm

2. Movements of pronation & supination occurs in all the following joints except:
a) Superior radio-ulnar joint
b) Middle radio-ulnar joint
c) Inferior radio-ulnar joint
d) Radio-carpal joint
Answer: Radio-carpal joint

3. About posterior cruciate ligament, true statement is
a) Attached to the lateral femoral condyle
b) Intra-synovial
c) Prevents posterior dislocation of tibia
d) Relaxed in full flexion
Answer: Prevents posterior dislocation of tibia

4. Structures that pass from thorax to abdomen behind the diaphragm are all, except:
a) Azygos vein
b) Aorta
c) Thoracic duct
d) Greater splanchnic nerve
Answer: Greater splanchnic nerve

5. Most common site of Morgagni hernia is?
a) Left anterior
b) Right posterior
c) Right anterior
d) Left posterior
Answer: Right anterior

6. Structure that does not cross the midline is:
a) Left gonadal vein
b) Left renal vein
c) Left brachio-cephalic vein
d) Hemi-Azygos vein
Answer: Left gonadal vein

7. Porto-systemic shunt is not seen in:
a) Liver
b) Spleen
c) Ano-rectum
d) Gastro Esophageal
Answer: Spleen

8. Injury to the male urethra below the perineal membrane causes urine to accumulate in:
a) Superficial perineal pouch
b) Deep perineal pouch
c) Space of retzius
d) Pouch of Douglas
Answer: Superficial perineal pouch

9. All are true about the trigone of the urinary bladder except:
a) Mucosa is loosely associated to the underlying musculature
b) Mucosa is smooth
c) It is lined by transitional epithelium
d) It is derived from the absorbed part of the meso-nephric duct
Answer: Mucosa is loosely associated to the underlying musculature
10. Supports of the uterus are all, except:
a) Utero-sacral ligament
b) Broad Ligament
c) Mackenrodt’s ligament
d) Levator ani
Answer: Broad Ligament

11. Posterior communicating artery a branch of
a) Internal carotid
b) External carotid
c) Middle cerebral
d) Posterior superior cerebellar
Answer: Internal carotid

12. Which of the following is not a branch of cavernous segment of internal carotid artery?
a) Cavernous branch
b) Inferior Hypophyseal branch
c) Meningeal branch
d) Ophthalmic branch
Answer: Ophthalmic branch

13. Difference between typical cervical & thoracic vertebral
a) Has a triangular body
b) Has a foramen transversarium
c) Superior articular facet directed backwards & upwards
d) Has a large vertebral body
Answer: Has a foramen transversarium

14. Which of this part of vertebral canal will show secondary curves with concavity backwards?
a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Sacral
d) Coccyx
Answer: Cervical

1. All of the following are Digastric muscle, except
a) Sternocleido mastoid
b) Omohyoid
c) Ligament of Treitz
d) Occipito-frontalis
Answer: Sternocleido mastoid

2. All of the following muscles are composite muscles except:
a) Pectineus
b) Rectus femoris
c) Adductor Magnus
d) Biceps femoris
Answer: Rectus femoris

3. In the lungs, bronchial arteries supply the broncho-pulmonary tree:
a) Till tertiary bronchi
b) Till segmental bronchi
c) Till respiratory bronchioles
d) Till alveolar sacs
Answer: Till respiratory bronchioles

4. The skin overlying the region where a venous cut- down is made to access the great saphenous vein is supplied by:
a) Femoral nerve
b) Sural nerve
c) Tibial nerve
d) Superficial peroneal nerve
Answer: Femoral nerve

5. Which of the following is the correct order of pathway for a sperm?
a) Straight tubules- Rete testis – efferent tubules
b) Rete tubules – efferent tubules –straight tubules
c) Efferent tubule-rete testis – straight tubules
d) Straight tubule – efferent tubules – rete tubules
Answer: Straight tubules- Rete testis – efferent tubules

6. Which of the following veins is found in relation to the para-duodenal fossa?
a) Inferior mesenteric vein
b) Middle colic vein
c) Left colic vein
d) Splenic vein
Answer: Inferior mesenteric vein

7. The artery to the ductus deferens is a branch of:
a) Inferior epigastric artery
b) Superior epigastric artery
c) Superior vesical artery
d) Cremasteric artery
Answer: Superior vesical artery

8. Tributaries of the cavernous sinus includes all of the following except:
a) Superior petrosal sinus
b) Inferior petrosal sinus
c) Deep middle cerebral vein
d) Superficial middle cerebral vein
Answer: Deep middle cerebral vein

9. All of the following statements about diploic veins are true, except:
a) Develop around 8th weeks of gestation
b) These have no valves (valve-less)
c) Present in cranial bones
d) Have a thin wall lined by a single layer of endothelium
Answer: Develop around 8th weeks of gestation

10. Which of the following bones do not contribute to the nasal septum?
a) Sphenoid
b) Lacrimal
c) Palatine
d) Ethmoid
Answer: Lacrimal

11. All of the following cranial nerves contain somatic efferents except:
a) 7th Nerve (Facial nerve)
b) 3rd Nerve (Occulo-motor nerve)
c) 4th Nerve (Trochlear never)
d) 6th Nerve (Abducent nerve)
Answer: 7th Nerve (Facial nerve)

12. Facial colliculus is seen in:
a) Midbrain
b) Pons
c) Medulla
d) Inter-peduncular fossa
Answer: Pons

13. Which is the Nucleus of Masseteric reflex?
a) Superior sensory nucleus of trigeminal nerve
b) Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve
c) Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve
d) Dorsal nucleus of vagus nerve
Answer: Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve

1. Artery in anatomical snuff box is
a) Radial
b) Brachial
c) Ulnar
d) Interosseous
Answer: Radial artery

2. Superior Gluteal Nerve supplies all of the following muscles except:
a) Gluteus minimus
b) Gluteus maximus
c) Tensor fascia lata
d) Gluteus medius
Answer: Gluteus maximus

3. All of the following are composite muscles, except:
a) Flexor carpi ulnaris
b) Flexor digitorum profundus
c) Pectineus
d) Biceps femoris
Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris

4. All of the following are branches of splenic Artery, except:
a) Short gastric artery
b) Hilar branches
c) Right gastro-epiploic artery
d) Arteria pancreatica magna
Answer: Right gastro-epiploic artery

5. Contents of deep perenial pouch include all of the following except:
a) Dorsal nerve of penis
b) Bulbo-urethral gland
c) Root of penis
d) Sphincter urethrae
Answer: Root of penis

6. Urogenital Diaphragm is made up of the following except:
a) Deep transverse Perineus
b) Perinial membrane
c) Colle’s fascia
d) Sphincter Urethrae
Answer: Colle’s fascia

7. Lymphatics from the spongy urethra drain into the following Lymph nodes:
a) Superior inguinal nodes
b) Internal inguinal nodes
c) Deep inguinal nodes
d) Sacral nodes
Answer: Deep inguinal nodes

8. Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of:
a) Mandibular nerve
b) Maxillary nerve
c) Lingual nerve
d) Facial nerve
Answer: Maxillary nerve

9. The parasympathetic secreto-motor fibres to parotid traverse through the following except:
a) Otic ganglion
b) Tympanic plexus
c) Greater petrosal nerve
d) Aurico-temporal nerve
Answer: Greater petrosal nerve

10. Which of the following is not true about the Trochlear nerve?
a) Has the longest intracranial course
b) Supplies the ipsilateral superior oblique muscle
c) Only cranial nerve that arises from the dorsal aspect of the brainstem
d) Enters orbit through the superior orbital fissure outside the annulus of Zinn
Answer: Supplies the ipsilateral superior oblique muscle

11. Area that lies immediately lateral to the anterior perforating substance is:
a) Orbital gyrus
b) Uncus
c) Optic chiasma
d) Limen insulae
Answer: Limen insulae

12. Medulla oblongata is supplied by the following arteries except:
a) Anterior spinal artery
b) Bulbar artery
c) Basilar artery
d) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Answer: Bulbar artery

13. Which of the following cranial structures are insensitive to pain?
a) Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses
b) Choroid plexus
c) Falx cerebri
d) Middle meningeal artery
Answer: Choroid plexus

14 All of the following statements about Sternberg canal are true, except:
a) Located anterior and medial to foramen rotundum
b) Locate posterior and lateral to foramen rotundum
c) Represents posterior cranio-pharyngeal canal
d) Cause of intra-sphenoidal meningocele
Answer: Locate posterior and lateral to foramen rotundum

15. Closure of Neural tube begins at which of the following levels?
a) Cervical Region
b) Thoracic region
c) Cephalic end
d) Caudal end
Answer: Cervical Region

16. Within which part of a gastric gland are chief cells located?
a) Gastric pit
b) Neck
c) Isthmus
d) Fundus
Answer: Fundus

17. Chief cells of stomach are most abundant in
a) Fundus
b) Body
c) Antrum
d) Pylorus
Answer: Fundus

18. All of the following statements about Paneth cells are true, except:
a) Rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum
b) Rich in zinc
c) Contain Lysozyme
d) Foamy appearance
Answer: Foamy appearance

19. Gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) is primarily located in
a) Lamina propria
b) Sub-mucosa
c) Muscularis
d) Serosa
Answer: Lamina propria

1. Gluteus medius is supplied by:
a) Superior Gluteal Nerve
b) Inferior Gluteal Nerve
c) Nerve to Obturator internus
d) Nerve to Quadratus Femoris
Answer: Superior Gluteal Nerve

2. Gluteus medius is supplied by.
a) Superior Gluteal Artery
b) Inferior Gluteal Artery
c) Obturator Artery
d) Ilio-inguinal artery
Answer: Superior Gluteal Artery

3. Urogenital Diaphragm is made up of the following, except:
a) Deep transverse perineus
b) Perinial membrane
c) Colle’s fascia
d) Sphincter Urethrae
Answer: Colle’s fascia

4. Hypogastric sheath is a condensation of
a) Scarpa’s fascia
b) Colle’s fascia
c) Pelvic fascia
d) Inferior layer of urogenital diaphragm
Answer: Pelvic fascia

5. Lymphatics from the spongy urethra drain into the following Lymph nodes:
a) Superior inguinal nodes
b) Internal inguinal nodes
c) Deep inguinal nodes
d) Sacral nodes
Answer: Deep inguinal nodes

6. Which of positions best describes the location of celiac plexus?
a) Antero-lateral to Aorta
b) Postero-lateral to Aorta
c) Antero-lateral to sympathetic chain
d) Antero-medial to sympathetic
Answer: Antero-lateral to Aorta

7. In post-ductal coarctation of aorta collaterals may be formed by all of the following except:
a) Vertebral artery
b) Supra-scapular artery
c) Sub-scapular artery
d) Posterior inter-costal artery
Answer: Vertebral artery (Most correct answer)

8. Which of the following passes through the foramen magnum?
a) Vertebral Artery
b) Sympathetic chain
c) Xlth cranial nerve
d) Internal carotid artery
Answer: Vertebral Artery

9. All of the following movements occur during abduction of shoulder except:
a) Elevation of humerus
b) Axial rotation of clavicle
c) Acromio-clavicular joint movement
d) Medial rotation of scapula
Answer: Medial rotation of scapula

10. All of the following are composite muscles, except:
a) Flexor carpi-ulnaris
b) Flexor digitorum Profundus
c) Pectineus
d) Biceps femoris
Answer: Flexor carpi-ulnaris

11. Left sided superior vena cava drains into:
a) Right Atrium
b) Left Atrium
c) Coronary sinus
d) Pericardial space
Answer: Coronary sinus

12. Which of the following tendons passes below the sustenticulum tali?
a) Tibialis anterior
b) Tibialis posterior
c) Flexor digitorum longus
d) Flexor hallucis longus
Answer: Flexor hallucis longus
13. Which of the following tendons has attachments on sustenticulum Tali?
a) Tibialis anterior
b) Tibialis posterior
c) Flexor digitorum longus
d) Flexor Hallucis longus
Answer: Tibialis posterior

1. Which of the following is not supplied by the anterior division of mandibular nerve (V3)?
a) Temporalis
b) Medial pterygoid
c) Lateral pterygoid
d) Masseter
Answer: Medial pterygoid

2. Diaphragm develops from all except:
a) Septum transversum
b) Dorsal meso-cardium
c) Pleuro-peritoneal membrane
d) Cervical myotomes
Answer: Dorsal meso-cardium

3. Which among the following is a branch from the trunk of brachial plexus?
a) Supra-scapular nerve
b) Long thoracic nerve
c) Anterior thoracic nerve
d) Nerve to sub-clavius
Answer: Supra-scapular nerve and Nerve to sub-clavius

4. Pain sensation from the ethmoid sinus is carried by:
a) Frontal nerve
b) Lacrimal nerve
c) Naso-ciliary nerve
d) Infra-orbital nerve
Answer: Naso-ciliary nerve

5. Onodi cells and Haller cells are associated with the following structures respectively?
a) Optic nerve and Orbital floor
b) Optic nerve and internal carotid artery
c) Internal carotid artery and Optic nerve
d) Orbital floor and internal carotid artery
Answer: Optic nerve and Orbital floor

6. All are seen in injury to common peroneal nerve except?
a) Loss of sensation over sole
b) Foot drop
c) Injury to neck of fibula
d) Loss of dorsi-flexion of toe
Answer: Loss of sensation over sole

7. All of the following are pneumatic bones except?
a) Frontal
b) Ethmoid
c) Mandible
d) Maxilla
Answer: Mandible

8. Posterior relations of head of pancreas are all, except:
a) Common bile duct
b) First part of duodenum
c) Right crus of diaphragm
d) Inferior vena cava
Answer: First part of duodenum

9. Deoxygenated blood is not seen in
a) Pulmonary artery
b) Umbilical artery
c) Umbilical vein
d) Renal vein
Answer: Umbilical vein

10. Most common nerve injured in supra-condylar fracture of humerus?
a) Median Nerve
b) Radial Nerve
c) Ulnar Nerve
d) Axillary Nerve
Answer: Median Nerve

1. Dilator pupillae iridis is supplied by
a) Post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibres from Edinger Westphal nucleus
b) Post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers from superior cervical ganglion
c) Post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibres from Cilliary Ganglion
d) Sympathetic fibers from the fronto-temporal branch of CN V
Answer: Post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers from superior cervical ganglion

2. All of the following structures cross the right ureter anteriorly, except:
a) Terminal ileum
b) Genito-femoral nerve
c) Right colic artery and ilio-colic artery
d) Vas deferens
Answer: Genito-femoral nerve

3. In case of perforation of ulcer in the posterior wall of 1st part of duodenum, which of the following structure is likely to be involved?
a) Inferior vena cava
b) Gastro-duodenal artery
c) Bile duct
d) Portal vein
Answer: Gastro-duodenal artery

4. All of the following are derivatives of the pharyngeal arches except
a) Tensor veli palatini
b) Mylohyoid
c) Palatine tonsils
d) Tensor tympani
Answer: Palatine tonsils

5. Which of the following about the valves of Houston is true?
a) The valves disappear after mobilization of the rectum
b) The middle valve correspond to the middle convex fold towards the right side
c) The upper valve corresponds to the peritoneal reflection
d) The valves contain all layers of the muscle wall
Answer: The valves disappear after mobilization of the rectum

6. All the following pass through the inguinal canal in female except:
a) Inferior epigastric artery
b) Round ligament of uterus
c) Ilio-inguinal nerve
d) Lymphatics from the uterus
Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

7. All of the following are correct about spinal cord except
a) The efferent nerve fibres originate from the anterior horn cells
b) The central canal is situated in the white commissure
c) It has grey matter core with white matter covering
d) Denticulate ligaments suspend spinal medulla in the sub-arachnoid space
Answer: The central canal is situated in the white commissure

8. The supra-duodenal bile duct is chiefly supplied by
a) Vessels that run upwards along bile duct from gastro-duodenal and retro-duodenal arteries
b) Vessels that arise from the cystic artery
c) Vessels that arise from the hepatic artery as it courses up along the common bile duct and supplies it in a non-axial fashion
d) Vessels that run downwards along bile duct from the right hepatic artery
Answer: Vessels that run upwards along bile duct from gastro-duodenal and retro-duodenal arteries

9. Little finger of hand corresponds to which of the following dermatomes
a) C6
b) C7
c) C8
d) T1
Answer: C8

Wednesday, 14 January 2015



✅1. first ssri discovered was fluoxetine
✅2. only ssri approved for childhood depression - fluoxetine
✅3. longest half life - fluoxetine
✅4. does not require dose tapering/does not cause withdrawal - fluoxetine
✅ 5. ssri having maximum anticholinergic effect - paroxetine

✅6. ssri having maximum sedation - paroxetine
✅7. ssri least safe in elderly - paroxetine 
✅8. Fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline, and fluoxetine are indicated for treatment of OCD in persons over the age of 18 years. 
✅9. Fluvoxamine and sertraline have also been approved for treatment of pediatric OCD (ages 6 to 17)
✅10. most common long term associated side effects of ssri - sexual dysfunction(manifests as anorgasmia)... it does not decrease with continued usage
✅11. mc side effects are gi side effects (bcoz of 5ht3 receptors) include nausea, diarrhea, anorexia, vomiting, flatulence, and dyspepsia... (aiims question loose stools >> anxiety)  
✅12. mc ssri implicated in causing paradoxical anxiety - fluoxetine
✅  13. mc ssri blamed to cause increase in suicidal risk especially in children - fluoxetine 
✅14. mc ssri causing insomnia - fluoxetine
✅15. ssri with shortest half life - fluvoxamine
✅16 .ssri with most enzyme inhibition - fluvoxamine 
✅17.ssri with most drug interactions - fluvoxamine 
✅18.all ssri are us fda approved for depression except - fluvoxamine
✅19.  rare s.e of ssri includes - SIADH..

Monday, 12 January 2015

Most commons


MC benign tumor of spleen : Hemangioma

MC benign tumor of the larynx : Squamous papilloma

MC benign tumor of the lung : Hamartoma

MC benign tumor of the small bowel : GIST

MC benign vascular gastric tumor : Glomus tumor of stomach.

MC bilateral testicular tumor : Lymphoma

MC biliary complication s/p lap. cholecystectomy : Bile duct leak from cystic duct stump.

MC biliary complication s/p liver transplantation : Obstruction/stenosis at anastomosis.

MC bladder neoplasm in children younger than 10 years : Rhabdomyosarcoma

MC bone to develop an osteochondroma : Femur (tibia second most common)

Saturday, 10 January 2015

Historical milestones in Forensic Medicine

1 Code of Hammurabi -”oldest known medico-legal code. 
2 Hippocrates (father of Medicine)  discussed lethality of wounds and formulated medical ethics. 
3. Manu law's  medical ethics” many sexual matters  most scientifically discussed. 

4  Justinian code -regulated the practice of medicine & surgery.  and established the function of the medical expert for legal procedure. 
5 Bartolomeo De Varignana - first medicolegal autopsy done by him in Italy. 
6 Paulus Zacchias  written "medico-legal questions", questions Medico legalis." 

7 Fortunato Fedele—written first book on Forensic medicne. 
8 Orfil considered as father of Modern Toxicology. 
9 In the 18th century, study in legal Medicine as a subject was established by appointing professorship in Germany.

10 In England Me Naughten's (who was aschizophrenic) rule has been established to deal with legal matters in cases of insanity or like situations whatsoever 

Friday, 9 January 2015

Inflammatory bowel disease

Inflammatory bowel disease

1) Appendicectomy is protective for Ulcerative Colitis
2) Smoking is protective for Ulcerative Colitis
3) Concordance in genetic twins is much more common in Crohn's than Ulcerative Colitis
4) NF-kB is the main transcription factor implicated in pathogenesis of IBD
5) Most common site for UC - Rectosigmoid junction
6) Most common site for Crohn's - Ileocecal junction
7) Crohn's can involve any part of GIT except - Rectum
8) Most common symptom of UC - Bloody diarrhoea
9) Most common symptom of Crohn's disease - Small bowel diarrhea
10) Lead pipe appearance or Pipe stem appearance - UC
11) Hose pipe appearance - Crohn's
-------------> Most sensitive test - Fecal calprotectin
-------------> Most specific test -Colonoscopy and guided biopsy
-------------> Most sensitive and specific -Colonoscopy and guided biopsy
13) DOC for Ulcerative colitis - 5 ASA agents
14) DOC for resistant Ulcerative Colitis - TNF alpha agents
15) DOC for Crohn's disease - TNF alpha agents
16) Latest drug for treatment of IBD - Vedolizumab - Its a ''alpha4 beta 7'' integrin inhibitor
17) Two extra -intestinal manifestations of IBD which DO NOT revert with treatment
( Reference 18th edition Harrison)

Wednesday, 7 January 2015

J wave

Abnormalities of JVP
1. Raised JVP with normal waveform: a. Fluid overload b. Right heart failure Q
2. Raised JVP with absent pulsation: SVC obstruction
3. Large a wave: a. Tricuspid stenosis b. Pulmonary stenosis c. Pulmonary artery Hypertension.
4. Cannon a wave: a. Complete heart block b. Junctional rhythm c. Atrioventricular dissociation.
5. Absent a wave: atrial fibrillation Q
6. Giant v wave: Tricuspid regurgitation. Q (Carvallo’s sign)
7. Slow y descent: Tricuspid stenosis Q
8. Prominent y descent: Constrictive pericarditis, severe RHF, high venous pressure.
9. Prominent x descent: Constrictive pericarditis, Cardiac tamponade. Descent is reversed in TR.

Monday, 5 January 2015

Random high yield points

ALDER-REILLY – Found in storage diseases such as Hurler’s syndrome (gargoylism)
AMYGDALOID - Almond-shaped structure in the brain involved with behaviour
AMYLOID - Corpora amylacea, age related
ANOCOCCYGEAL - Musculotendinous structure near the coccyx
AORTIC - Located in the aorta, they help to control ventilation (also see CAROTID body)
APOPTOTIC - Consequence of cell death which may be physiological or pathological
ARANTIUS - One of three nodules in the aortic and pulmonary valves
ARAO-PERKINS - Found in the dermal papillae of hair follicles
ASBESTOS - Asbestosis
ASCHOFF - Rheumatic fever
ASTEROID - Sporotrichosis
ASTEROID-SCHAUMANN - Granulomatous diseases such as sarcoidosis
AUER - Leukaemia
BABES-ERNST - Rich in phosphorus and found in bacteria and fungi
BALBIANI - Membrane-less structure in the cytoplasm of oocytes
BAMBOO - Asbestos-type disease
BANANA - Ochronosis
BARR - Sex chromatin found in female cells
BASAL - Modified centriole found in motile cells
BIELSCHOWSKY - Status marmoratus, a form of cerebral palsy
BIONDI - Aging
BIRBECK - Histiocytosis X
BLUE - Lung diseases such as pneumonia and asbestosis
BORRELL - Fowlpox
BRACHT-WACHTER - Yellow spots in the myocardium in infective endocarditis
BRASSY - Malaria
BULL’S EYE - Target red cells found in blood and liver disease. Also in adenocarcinoma cells in malignant effusions
BUNINA - Motor neurone disease, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
BUSCHINO - Tissue cracks caused by prolonged immersion in formalin
CABOT’S RING - Severe anaemia
CAJAL - Nuclear organelles found in active cells
CALL-EXNER - Granulosa cell tumours of the ovary
CAROTID - Found in the carotid artery and helps to control ventilation
CATERPILLAR - Porphyria cutanea tarda
CAVERNOUS -Vascular structures of anal cavity and erectile tissues
CHARCOT-BOTTCHER - Found in Sertoli cells of the testis
CHARCOT-LEYDEN - Crystalline bodies found in sputa in patients with asthma
CHROMAFFIN - Also known as paraganglion and present in the adrenal and liver
CHROMATOID - Entamoeba histolytica
CILIARY - These release aqueous humour in the eye
CITRON - Associated with clostridium septicum infections
CIVATTE - Lichen planus
CLARKE - Alveolar sarcoma of the breast
COCCOID X - Psittacosis
COLLAR - Sticky, funnel-shaped cells that line the inner cavity of sponges
COMMA-SHAPED - Located in the nephron of the kidney
COUNCILMAN - Yellow fever, viral hepatitis
COWDRY - Herpes and poliovirus
CREOLA - Asthma
CRESCENT - Achromocytes - transparent (glass) bodies of red blood cells with crescent margins
CROOKE’S HYALINE - Addison's disease, Cushing syndrome
CYTOID - Systemic lupus, diabetes
DAVIDSON - Nuclear chromatin buds found in female neutrophils
DENSE - Secretory organelles found in platelets in Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
DOHLE - Found in infections, poisoning and chemotherapy
DONNE - Modified fat-containing leucocyte found in colostrums
DONOVAN - Granuloma inguinale
DUTCHER - Multiple myeloma, lymphoma
ELEMENTARY - Non-replicating infectious particle of Chlamydia
ELSCHNIG - Pearl-like clusters of epithelial cells on the lens of the eye in post-operative cataract patients
EMBRYOID - Germ cell tumours
ENIGMATIC - Complex lysosomes found in the pituitary
FARBER - Farber's disease, a disorder of lipid metabolism
FESSAS - Thalassemia
FIBRIN - Pleural effusion, pneumothorax
FLEMMING - Found in phagocytes and germinal centres of lymph glands
FRUITING - Reproductive mass in fungi and bacteria.
GALL - Lipid-filled lysosomes found in lymphocytes
GAMNA-FAVRE - Chlamydia trachomatis (Lymphogranuloma venereum)
GAMNA-GANDY - Cirrhosis
GASTRIC - The corpus gastricum, the body of stomach situated between the pylorus and fundus
GENICULATE - Four small masses of thalamus linked to hearing and sight
GIANNUZZI - Crescent-shaped patches of serous cells in mucous glands.
GLOBOID - Krabbe’s disease (leucodystrophy)
GLOMUS - Glomus tumours
GOLGI - Flattened membrane sacs in the cytoplasm of cells
GOLGI-MAZZONI - Sensory nerve endings in the fingertips
GUARNIERI - Smallpox
GUPTA - Actinomycosis
HABENULAR - Group of nuclei in the thalamus where the pineal gland attaches to the brain
HAEMATOXYLIN - Systemic lupus
HAMASAKI-WESENBERG - Granulomatous diseases such as sarcoidosis
HARTING - Formed during calcification of cerebral capillaries
HASSALL - Swirls of epithelial cells in the thymus gland
HASSALL-HENLE – Associated with degenerative change, chronic inflammation and the aging process
HECTOID - Sickle cell anaemia
HEINZ - Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
HEMISPHERICAL - Glaucoma, retinal detachment
HENDERSON-PATTERSON - Molluscum contagiosum
HENSEN - Found in the outer hair cells of the inner ear
HERRING - Neurosecretory mass found in the pituitary gland
HIGHMORE - Fibrous mass of the testis
HIRANO - Neurodegenerative disorders such as Alzheimer's disease
HOWELL-JOLLY - Found in patients with dysfunctional or absent spleens
HYALINE - Optic nerve head drusen, myopathy
INFRAPATELLAR FAT - Fat pad occupying the area between the ligament and synovium of the knee joint
INFUNDIBULAR - Funnel-shaped body connecting the hypothalamus of the brain.
INTERRENAL - Tissue between the kidneys of fishes that corresponds with the adrenal in mammals
JAWORSKI - Spiral mucous bodies seen in gastric secretions in hyperchlorhydria
JOEST-DEGEN - Borna disease of warm-blooded animals
JUXTARESTIFORM - Part of the inferior cerebellar peduncle
KAMINO - Spitz naevus and malignant melanoma
KETONE - Compounds made by the liver in metabolism of fat
KOCH - East coast fever of cattle, sheep and goats
KURLOFF - Blood cell granules found in guinea pig infections
LAFORA - Lafora body disease, a metabolic storage disorder
LALLEMAND - Multiple myeloma, macroglobulinaemia
LAMELLAR - MALT lymphoma, haemangioma (also see ODLAND body)
LEISHMAN-DONOVAN - Leishmaniasis (also known as Kala Azar and Dum Dum fever)
LEWY - Dementia with Lewy bodies
LINDNER - Inclusion conjunctivitis of the newborn
LIPSCHULTZ - Herpes simplex virus Type A
LOOSE - Fragments of bone or cartilage in the joint space
LUSCHKA - The coccygeal body located adjacent to the coccyx
LUSE - Rheumatoid disease, schwannoma
LUYS - The subthalamic nuclei, part of the basal ganglia system
LYSSA - Degenerating neurones
MALLORY - Alcohol-related liver disorders and Wilson’s disease
MALLORY-DENK - Chronic hepatitis C
MALPIGHIAN – The renal corpuscle, part of the nephron of the kidney
MAMILLARY - Pair of tissue masses in the hypothalamus
MARCHAL - Cell inclusion bodies in mousepox (infectious viral ectromelia)
MARINESCO - Neurodegenerative disorders such as Parkinson's disease
MELON SEED - Small, fibrous bodies often seen in tuberculous tenosynovitis
MIYAGAWA - Lymphogranuloma venereum
MOTT - Cells containing Russell bodies in myeloma, plasmacytoma and inflammation
MULTILAMELLAR - Tropical spastic paraparesis (human T-lymphotropic virus)
MULTIVESICULAR - Circular organelles formed by budding of the cell membrane
MUSHROOM - Structures found in the brain of insects, invertebrates and ringed worms
NASAL SWELL - Part of nasal septum important in regulating air flow
NEGRI - Rabies
NEILL-MOOSER - Endemic typhus fever
NEMALINE - Nemaline or rod body myopathy
NEUROPEITHELIAL - Collection of pulmonary endocrine cells
NISSL - Cytoplasmic granules of nerve cells
ODLAND - Found in keratinocytes and associated with lipid storage
OKEN - Mesonephron or a primitive kidney of the embryo
OLIVARY - Located in the medulla oblongata of the brain
ORBITAL FAT - Fat contained in the orbit that contributes to support of the eyeball
OWL’S EYE - Cytomegalovirus infection, Hodgkin's lymphoma
PACCHIONIAN - Arachnoid villi on the dura mater of the brain
PALE - Parkinson’s disease
PAMPINIFORM - Organ homologous with the male epididymis in the broad ligament of the uterus
PAPP-LANTOS - Multiple system atrophy (MSA), a neurological disorder
PARABASAL - Cytoplasmic body found in certain protozoa
PARAMURAL - Membranous structures of plant cells found between the cell wall and plasma membrane
PARANEPHRIC - Collection of adipose tissue located superficial to the renal fascia
PARATERMINAL - Slender, vertical whitish band near the anterior commissure of the brain
PARIETAL - Eyelike structure on the dorsal aspect of the head in lower vertebrates
PASCHEN - Vaccinia and variola (smallpox)
PERINEAL - Fibromuscular mass between urogenital and anal triangle
PERTINAX - Found in the nail
PICK - Niemann-Pick disease
PINEAL - Conical structure found in the brain
PITUITARY - Another name for the pituitary gland
POLAR - Found during the maturation of ova
PROTOCORM-LIKE - Small swollen tubers that have the ability to produce shoots in vitro
PROWAZEK - Vaccinia and variola (smallpox)
PSAMMOMA - Papillary carcinomas
PSEUDOASBESTOS - Ferroprotein bodies in the lung other than asbestos (such as coal)
PUSTULO-OVOID - Granular cell tumours
QUADRIGEMINAL - Reflex centre of the midbrain
REGNAUD - Residual mass found during
RENAUT - Connective tissue structure found in nerve fibres
RESIDUAL - Lipofuchsin - undigested material of lysosomes
RETICULATE - Intracytoplasmic form of Chlamydia
RETZIUS - Pigmented mass in the acoustic papillae of the ear
RICE - Rheumatoid arthritis
ROSS - Treponema pallidum (syphilis)
RUSHTON - Odontogenic lesions
RUSSELL - Multiple myeloma, plasmacytoma, chronic inflammation
SANDSTORM - Another name for the parathyroid glands
SCHILLER-DUVAL - Teratoma, yolk sac tumour
SIMCHOWICZ - Neurodegenerative disorders such as Alzheimer’s disease
SPIRONOLACTONE - Found in the adrenal after long term use of spironolactone
SPONGY - Spongy mass of tissue surrounding the male urethra within the penis
STRIATE - Striped mass of white and grey matter in front of the thalamus
TINGIBLE - Reactive lymphadenopathy
TORRES - Yellow fever
TORRES-TEIXEIRA - Smallpox and measles
TOTO - Epulis fissuratum (gingival hyperplasia)
TYGESON - Pneumonia
UTERINE - The upper, wider part of the uterus
VERMIFORM - Structures found on the Kupffer cells of the liver
VEROCAY - Schwannoma
VERTEBRAL - Main part of the vertebra to which the discs are attached
VESICLE-LIKE - Broad term describing vesicular structures such as microsomes
VILLELA - Yellow fever
VITREOUS - Benson’s disease (asteroid hyalitis)
WAGNER-MEISSNER - Neurofibroma, von Recklinghausen's disease
WEIBEL-PALADE - von Willebrand's disease
WINKLER - Treponema pallidum
ZEBRA - Metachromatic leucodystrophy, Niemann-Pick disease
ZUCKERKANDL - Chromaffin mass of the abdominal aorta